Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 1
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 1
PART I: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER A,B,C OR D: (3ms)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:
1. A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band
2. A. double B. govern C. punish D. control
3. A. handicapped B. visited C. decided D. wanted
4. Many people go to pagodas to……………for good luck.
A. ask B. think C. pray D. celebrate
5. He apologized…………not being able to complete the poem.
A. for B. in C. on D. of
6. My teachers always encourage ……………..hard at school.
A. us to work B. that we work C. to work D. working
7. The police prevented us …………….getting into the park.
A. on B. out of C. off D. from
8. …………………….. two hours over lunch, they left the restaurant.
A. Spending B. Spent C. After spend D. Having spent
9. Some scientists say that there are enough resources to …………….8 billion people.
A. raise B. provide C. distribute D. support
10. Before I started the car, all of the passengers _________________ their seat belts.
A. have buckled B. had buckled C. will buckle D. was buckling
11. How many__________ are there in the competition?
A. participative B. participants C. participates D. participations
12. I am so __________ that I cannot say anything, but keep silent.
A. nervously B. nerve C. nervous D. nervousness
13. ___________ is a holiday in Vietnam celebrated on September 2nd every year.
A. Teachers’ Day B. Mother’s Day C. Thanksgiving D. Independence Day
14. There was __________ shortage of food and safe water after the flood.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
15. Mr. John thanked me___________ helping him with the homework.
A. to B. for C. of D. on
16. _______________it was a formal dinner party, James wore his blue Jeans.
A. Even though B. Since C. Only if D. Until
17. Population growth rate_______________ in recent years.
A. has fallen B. had fallen C. have fallen D. fell
18. The children were warned ______ in the lake without an adult present.
A. not swim B. not to swim C. not swimming D. to not swim
19. It’s no use_____________ ask him ______________us.
A. asking / helping B. asking / to help C. to ask/ helping D. to ask / to help
20. My handbag was stolen ____________we were playing tennis.
A. before B. while C. after D. during
21. If I had enough money , I ___________ a good dictionary.
A. would buy B. would have bought C. will buy D. will have bought
22. He ____________me that if he were me, he would do that work.
A. told B. said to me C. said D. says
23. Lan: What do you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?
Nga:______________________ . It’s an opportunity to test my general knowledge.
A. Yes, that’s right B. Oh, it’s great C. It’s not a good idea. D. Ok, I don’t agree
24. Lan : “I’ve passed my exam.” Mai : “_______________________”
A. Good luck. B. That’s a good idea. C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. Congratulations
PART II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (1 ms)
The world’s population increased from 3 billion in 1959 to 6 billion by 1999, a doubling that occurred over 40 years. The Census Bureau’s latest projections show that population growth will continue in the 21st century, although more slowly. The world’s population is projected to grow from 6 billion in 1999 to 9 billion by 2042, an increase of 50 percent that will require 43 years.
The world’s population growth rate rose from about 1.5 percent per year from 1950 to 1951 to a peak of over 2 percent in the early 1960s due to rising age at marriage as well as increasing availability and use of effective birth-control methods. Note that changes in population growth have not always been steady. A dip in the growth rate from 1959- 1960, for instance, was due to the Great leap Forward in China. During that time, both natural disasters and decreased agricultural output in the wake of massive social reorganization caused China’s death rate to rise sharply and its fertility rate to fall by almost half.
25. How many people did the world’s population increase between 1959 and 1999?
A. 3 billion B. 40 million C. 9 billion D. 6 billion
26. Which sentence is True?
A. In 1990, there are about 6 billion people all over the world.
B. Population growth in the 21st century was more than that in the 20th century.
C. The world’s population is dramatically decreasing.
D. Population growth in the 20th century was more than that in the 21st century.
27. The word require in line 4 means………..
A. take B. pass C. spend D. have
28. The population growth rate decreased due to ………….
A. early marriage B. good health care
C. reductions in mortality D. the effective birth-control methods.
29. In 1959-1960, the population growth in China…………..
A. was steady B. increased rapidly C. decreased D. was unchanged
PART III. Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (2 ms)
30. They let me choose a pencil, and I took the red pencil. (Using one or ones)
=> ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
31. Because Peter didn’t study his lessons carefully, he got bad marks for the Chemistry test.
=> If ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
32. “Thank you very much. You help me a lot,” the boy said to his sister.
=> The boy thanked his sister ……………………………………………………………………………………
33. The criminal removed all traces of his crime. He left the building (perfect participate).
=> ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
34. “Could you pass me the book?” she asked me.
=> She asked ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
35. “If I had a guitar here, I would sing you a song,” he said.
=> He said ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART IV:
A. Make the complete sentences using the words given. (1ms)
36. I/ have/ birthday party/ house/ 8 p.m. / November 19th.
=> ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
37. Last night/ Linda/ work/ on/ computer/ when/ she/ hear/ strange noise.
=> ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
B. Translate from Vietnamese to English and vice versa:
38. Cô ấy nói với tôi rằng nếu tôi là bạn, tôi sẽ viếng thăm chùa Hương.
=> ………………………………………………………………………
39. You could try to make people feel more relaxed by introducing yourself to someone who friendly-looking.
=> ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
PART V. Give the correct form of the word in parentheses to complete each sentence. (2ms)
40. Anne hoped (invite)……………………….. to join the private club.
41. I’ve never fallen in such an (embarrass)………………………. situation before.
42. The most important thing we should do now is to fight against (literate)…………………
43. I suddenly remembered that I (forget) ………………………. my keys.
44. While I (do)……………………….. some shopping yesterday, I saw your friend.
45. Many people enjoy (travel) ……………………… to different parts of the world.
46. What’s the (populate)…………………….. of your country?
47. The teacher let him (stay) ………………… at home to finish the assignment.
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 2
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 2
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (0,5m)
1. A. follow B. narrow C. cow D. know
2. A. target B. arrive C. part D. march
II. IDENTIFYING THE ERRORS. Choose the underlined part which needs correcting (1m)
3. Because the bad weather, we can’t go to the cinema with our friends.
A. B. C. D.
4. She advised me study hard to pass the examination.
A. B. C. D.
5. I want to travel because I enjoy to meet people and seeing new places.
A. B. C. D.
6. A clock is an instrument who tells you the time.
A. B. C. D.
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY :
Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence: (1,5m)
7. I feel terrible. I think I ________ sick.
A. will be B. am C. was going to be D. am going to be
8. Would you like ________ somewhere for a drink?
A. go B. to go C. going D. to going
9. __________ does he want to study English? Because it’s an international language.
A. Why B. How C. Who D. What
10. This resort ____________ since 2008.
A. is building B. has been built C. was built D. built
11. I am interested______ playing badminton.
A. with B. in C. at D. on
12. She___________ like cake when she was young.
A. would B. must C. could D. used to
Use correct tense/ form of the verbs in each of the bracket. (chia động từ trong ngoặc) (2m)
13. The young usually (go)____________ to the English speaking club on Sunday.
14. We (not meet)___________________ him since he moved to London.
15. Please keep quiet while the teacher (explain)___________ the lesson.
16. Yesterday, I (go)_________ out after I had finished my homework.
17. Would you mind (open)______________ a window.
18. Mr. John decided (get) _______________ another job.
19. Mai suggested (have)________________ a party.
20. We are looking forward to (talk)_____________ to you in real life.
IV. READING. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. (2m)
Martin Luther King was born on 15th January 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia. In 1951, he went to Boston University, where he studied for 4 years. In 1952, he met Coretta Scott, and as soon as he saw her, he fell in love. They got married in 1953, and they had 4 children. In 1954, the King left Boston, and Martin became a minister at Baptist Church in Montgomery, Alabam A. Then he started working for the black freedom movement. Thousands of people walked to Washington to hear his famous speech at the Lincold Memorial in 1963, and he won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1964. He died on 4th April 1968 in Memphis, Tennessee, from a gunshot wound.
1. When and where was Martin Luther King born?
→______________________________________________________
2. How long did he study at Boston University?
→______________________________________________________
3. What kind of prize did Martin Luther King win in 1964?
→______________________________________________________
4. When did Martin Luther King die?
→______________________________________________________
V. WRITING (3m)
Build sentences base on suggestions.
1. Peter/ door/ has/ the/ opened.
→_________________________________________________
2. If/ hard/ will/ I/ study/ I/ pass/ exam/ the.
→_________________________________________________
3. They have built a new hospital near the airport. (Passive voice)
→_ A new hospital ________________________________________________
4. A fridge is a machine ____________ is used for keeping food fresh (Relative Pronoun)
5. Mr. Pike said, “ You can go to the movie tonight, Mary.” (Reported speech: chuyển thành câu gián tiếp)
→ Mr. Pike told Mary that_____________________________
6. In spite of the cold weather, she wasn’t wearing a coat. ( Use “Although”)
→_Although__________________________
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 3
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 3
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)
|
1. A. education 2. A. death 3. A. chat 4. A. above |
B. met B. breath B. panic B. son |
C. general C. ease C. fast C. sunshine |
D. extremely D. leather D. passenger D. women |
II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (1.5 points)
1. You (see) …………………. Nam last Sunday? – Oh, no. I (not / see) ……….….…… him for many days now.
2. Yesterday morning I…………………………. (remember) the answer to the question Bob…………………….. (ask) me the night before, so I …………………………. (phone) him.
3. You don’t need (pay) …………….…… the money back for a year.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1.5 points)
1. We should choose a …………………………… place for our picnic next weekend. (SUIT)
2. My brother is fond of doing …………………………… research. (SCIENCE)
3. The most common …………………………. is about poor service. (COMPLAIN)
4. He lost the game because of his …………………………… (CARE)
5. Books help people to get more………………………………… (KNOW)
6. We’re so…………………………. of her for telling the truth. ( PRIDE)
IV. Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (2 points)
My name is Anderson and I’ve been here just a few days. I’m from out of town. I have several friends in this city and I’ve come to visit them. Actually, I
used to live in this city many years ago. I was born here and my wife was born in a little town nearby. We both went to school and had many friends here. We’ve been in New York for more than fifteen years. We live in the suburbs and I work in the city. I have to get up early every day to go to work. I work from 9 o’clock in the morning until a little after six o’clock in the evening.
1. What / Mr. Anderson / do / here? ………………………………………..
2. Mr. Anderson / ever live / this city? ……………………………………..
3. How long / the Andersons / live / New York? ……………………………………
4. Mr. Anderson / have to work / 10 o’clock / morning? ……………………………
V. There is a MISTAKE in each of the sentences, underline the mistake and CORRECT it. (2.5 points)
1.The doctor called this morning while you slept. ……………………..
2. Get more exercise appears to be the best way to lose weight. …………
3. Let’s stop to watch so much TV so that we can read or go out instead. Fountain pens first became commercial available about a hundred years ago. …………
4. She lived in London for five years before she moved to New York.…………..
VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1.5 points)
1. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?
à Isn’t there ………………………………………………………………?
2. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
à He regretted ……………………………………………………
3. The robber had run away before the police arrived.
à When the police …………………………………………….. .. escaped.
4. The last time he wrote to his parents was two months ago.
à He ………………………………………………………………
5. It took us five hours to get to London.
à We spent ………………………………………….……………
6. Smoking is not allowed in the ward.
à Would you mind ……………………………………………….?
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 4
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 4
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. picture B. adventure C. future D. mature
Câu 2: A. urgent B. surface C. hurry D. curtain
Câu 3: A. beat B. heat C. meat D. breakfast
Câu 4: A. worked B. stopped C. wanted D. forced
Câu 5: A. books B. lives C. gets D. repeats
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Câu 6: If you work hard, you will eventually ______.
A. succeed B. successfully C. successful D. success
Câu 7: But her real joy was “easing human suffering”. The founding of the Radium Institute in 1914 made her humanitarian wish ______ true.
A. came B. come C. to come D. comes
Câu 8: They had eaten everything ______ I arrived at the party.
A. by the time B. at the time C. whenever D. the time
Câu 9: The lift is out of order, _____ is too bad.
A. whom B. where C. who D. which
Câu 10: The old _____ our care.
A. needs B. need C. needing D. to need
Câu 11: Finally in 1891, Marie, with _____money to live on, went to Paris to realise her dream at the Sorbonne.
A. very few B. very little C. very many D. very a little
Câu 12: Do you mind ______ the cooking?
A. to do B. for doing C. doing D. do
Câu 13: The baby ______ wonderfully up to now.
A. has behaved B. behaved C. is behaving D. behaves
Câu 14: Lan: “ Good afternoon!” Nam: “______”
A. Goodbye. See you later. B. Hello. How are you?
C. Nice to meet you? D. Bye.
Câu 15: The ______ are those who can’t use a part of the body in a normal way.
A. unemployed B. mentally-retarded C. disabled D. injured
Câu 16: Jane: ______
Kate: Everybody, except for my sister because she was on business.
A. Why did your sister attend the party? B. How was the party?
C. How about the party? D. Who attended your birthday party?
Câu 17: David can make an airplane appear and disappear ______.
A. magical B. magic C. magic’s D. magically
Câu 18: His pronunciation causes me many ______.
A. difficult B. difficultly C. difficulties D. difficulty
Câu 19: This is the most ______ film I have ever watched.
A. excitement B. exciting C. excited D. excite
Câu 20: David Brown worked ______ a tourist guide from June 1999 to December 2002. He really liked his job.
A. as B. on C. for D. with
Câu 21: By the time my mother______ home, I ______ all my homework.
A. got/ had done. B. got/ did. C. got / had did. D. had got / had done.
Câu 22: Everybody______ happily. Suddenly they______ smoke.
A. was dancing/ smelt B. had danced/ smelt.
C. danced/ smelt. D. were dancing/ smelt
Câu 23: I will go to bed until I ______ all my exercises.
A. have finished B. will finish C. has finished D. am finishing
Câu 24: He often practises speaking English with the native ______.
A. speaking B. spoke C. speakers D. speak
Câu 25: Lindsay Lewis ______ research at Bristol University in the 1980s.
A. made B. had made C. had done D. did
Câu 26: The purpose of this test is to ______ the weight of the chemical element.
A. interrupt B. measure C. find out D. ease
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 27: I often talk to my fellow peasants when we have free time.
A. farmers B. doctors C. lawyers D. teachers
Câu 28: After lunch, I often take a short rest.
A. destination B. plough C. excursion D. break
Câu 29: Linh always has a very busy timetable for the whole week.
A. schedule B. routine C. holiday D. life
Câu 30: No matter what may happen, you should never give up hopes.
A. create B. be satisfied with C. begin D. stop
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
EDUCATION IN ENGLAND
Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (31) ______ school. There (32) ______ three main types of education institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools, and universities.
State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half past four. School is open five days a week.
(33) ______ Saturdays and Sundays, there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in summer. In London as in all cities, there are two grades of state schools for those (34) ______ will go to work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for children from eleven to fifteen.
The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography, (35) ______ ,nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.
Câu 31: A. go B. come C. attend D. arrive
Câu 32: A. is B. has C. have D. are
Câu 33: A. For B. On C. At D. In
Câu 34: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Câu 35: A. scientifically B. scientific C. science D. scientist
V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The first school for blind, deaf and mute children in the Tibet Autonomous Region celebrated its first anniversary on Friday. The school is built in the eastern suburb of Lhasa, capital of Tibet, and is designed to hold 200 students. It covers 20,000 square meters.The school curriculum includes Braille and sign language training, Tibetan, mathematics, writing, ethics training, physical education, arts, handicrafts, speech and walking courses. At the celebration, the audience was touched by a silent song expressed by the students with sign language. BaibaToinzhub, a 10-year-old blind child, can speak fluent Chinese and is good at singing and dancing. He told the visitors that life in the boarding school was comfortable.
Câu 36: What type of students attend the school?
A. Children who cannot see, hear, or speak.
B. Children who live in the Tibet Autonomous Region.
C. Children with a variety of disabilities.
D. Children who are visually impaired.
Câu 37: The school is located in ______.
A. the capital of Tibet B. the eastern of Tibet
C. 20,000 square meters D. the suburb of the capital of Tibet
Câu 38: The school is ______.
A. built in Tibet B. able to hold 200 students
C. 20,000 square kilometers in area D. the first boarding school in Tibet
Câu 39: Which subject is taught in the school?
A. Computers B. Physics C. Foreign languages D. Braille
Câu 40: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Life in the boarding school is comfortable.
B. Tibet’s first deaf-mute school celebrated its 10th birthday.
C. BaibaToinzhub can sing and dance very well.
D. The visitors were touched by a silent song.
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Câu 41: We hope to receive a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
A. Our mutual friend, Susan, whom we hope to receive a message.
B. Susan, who’s our mutual friend, is hoped to receive a message from.
C. We’re looking forward to receiving a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
D. We wish we received a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
Câu 42: Minh wishes he had taken part in the English competition last week.
A. Minh now regrets not having attended the English competition last week.
B. Minh would never mind not attending the English competition last week.
C. Minh really enjoyed attending the English competition last week.
D. Not attending the English competition last week was Minh’s big mistake.
Câu 43: We really do not want to hear your explanation again.
A. We are fed up with hearing your explanation again.
B. We would rather not ask you to give any explanation again.
C. Your explanation really makes us feel sorry.
D. We are extremely sorry for hearing your explanation again.
Câu 44: I didn’t use to like football.
A. When I was young, I liked football, but now I don’t.
B. I don’t like football.
C. Once I didn’t like football, but now I do.
D. I wasn’t accustomed to football.
Câu 45: The dictionary was so expensive that I didn’t buy it.
A. The dictionary was too expensive for me to buy it.
B. It was an expensive dictionary so that meant I didn’t buy it.
C. It was such an expensive dictionary that I didn’t buy it.
D. The dictionary was enough expensive for me to buy.
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 46: The stories what I’ve told you are all true.
A. I’ve told B. are C. true D. what
Câu 47: I succeeded in to find a job, so my parents didn’t make me go to college.
A. didn’t make B. to find C. go D. succeeded in
Câu 48: It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
A. to go to work B. It often takes C. fifteen minutes D. by foot
Câu 49: Marie Curie was the first woman received a Doctor of Science degree from Sorbonne University.
A. Sorbonne B. received
C. Doctor of Science degree D. the first woman
Câu 50: He advised me to consider all the factors before decided to accept the job.
A. advised B. decided C. factors D. to consider
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 5
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 5
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)
|
1. A. background 2. A. sand 3. A. peasant 4. A. marvellous |
B. atomic B. man B. reason B. target |
C. calculation C. pass C. teapot C. warm |
D. marry D. bad D. leader D. guitar |
II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (2 points)
1. He failed (persuade)……………………his boss to accept his project.
2. Trees (grow)…………………………more quickly in summer than in winter.
3. You (ever/ see)……………….……….this film before?
4. Mary (not/ have)………………. much money. She can’t afford (go)…………..……..out very often.
5. I (already/ hear)……………………. about the accident when he (tell)…………..……. me about it.
6. The police didn’t allow the tourists (camp) ………..…………..in this wood for security reasons.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1point)
1. The boys are in……………………for the competition next week. TRAIN
2. Through hard work and………………., all obstacles can be overcome. DETERMINE
3. My daughter has one of the biggest stamp……………………..in Britain. COLLECT
4. After the……………….…death of her husband, Marie Curie took up his TRAGEDY
position at the Sorbonne.
IV. Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (3 points)
Albert Einstein was born on 14 March 1879 in Germany. Around 1886, he began his school in Munich. As well as his violin lessons, which he had from age six to thirteen, he also had religious education at home where he was taught Judaism. Two years later he entered the Luitpold Gymnasium and after this his religious education was given at school. He began to study mathematics, in particular the calculus, in 1891. In 1894 his family moved to Milan but he remained in Munich.
In 1895 Einstein failed an examination that would have allowed him to study for a diploma as an electrical engineer in Zurich. Indeed, he succeeded with his plan graduating in 1900 as a teacher of mathematics and physics. In 1905 he proposed the special theory of Relativity. Einstein received the Nobel Prize in 1921. He died on 18th April 1955 in Princeton.
1. How old /Albert Einstein /when /begin/ his school?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. When/ he/ begin /study / mathematics?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Einstein/ use/ work/ electrical engineer/ Zurich?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (2 points)
1. I haven’t gone to the theatre for a long time.
The last time………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Sue fell asleep on the sofa. Then she left the house.
Before………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Her mother spent two hours making a new dress.
It took….………………………………………………………………………….
4. The driver of the car said it was true that he didn’t have a license.
The driver of the car admitted ……………………………………………………
VII. Use the words or phrases to write complete sentences. (1 point)
1. I/ often/ go/ school/ early/ avoid/ drive/ in/ rush hour.
” ………………………………………………………………………
2. My daughter/ interested/ work / a/ tourist guide/ because/ she/ enjoys/ work/ people.
” ………………………………………………………………………..
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 6
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 6
Part A: Multiple Choice
I.Read the passage and chose the best word for each blank.
All early television was broadcast in black and white. Color television was possible but it was too (1) _____ and of very poor quality until the middle of the 1950s. Color television broadcasts began in the United States in 1954, in Japan in 1960, and in Europe in 1967.
The first (2) _____ on the moon was broadcast live on television in 1969, and now television programs are transmitted all over the world immediately through the use of satellites that transmit the signals from the earth, through (3) _____, and back to the earth.
More people now (4) _____ their news and information through television than through newspapers and radio. The development of television is one of the most rapid and exciting (5) _____ of our century.
1. A. bulky B. complicated C. expensive D. valuable
2. A. arriving B. flying C. landing D. moving
3. A. space B. atmosphere C. distance D. area
4. A. have B. get C. take D. bring
5. A. problems B. facts C. events D. Issues
II. Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 6: The football match was cancelled because it rained.
A. We postponed the football match whether it rained or not.
B. We planned to watch a football match because we didn’t know it would rain.
C. Despite the rain, we watched the football match as planned.
D. The football match was cancelled because of the rain.
Question 7: I have been learning English for seven years.
A. I started to learn English for seven years.
B. I started to learn English seven years ago.
C. I have started to learn English for seven years. .
D. I didn’t start to learn English seven years ago.
III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases
Question 8: In large cases, children feel that they cannot _____ with the teacher.
A. contact B. interact C. transmit D. relax
Question 9: What makes computer a miraculous device?
A. strange B. powerful C. magical D. excellent
Question 10: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.
A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama
Question 11: She earned a degree in Physics with flying colours
A. make less severe B. keep in mind C. developed mind D. with a very high mark
Question 12: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.
A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama
Question 13: A: I think we should widen the roads.
B: _____. If the roads are widened, cars and lorries can get to our village.
A. That’s a good idea B. I don’t agree with you
C. I don’t think so D. I disagree with you
Question 14: What do you usually do at 17:00 p.m?
A. He has an English lesson. B. He usually plays football
C. He gets up and brush his teeth B. He has breakfast and goes to school
Question 15 : Tom: _________________
Tony: For three years.
A. How long you have lived here? B. How long have you lived here?
C. How many years you lived here? D. How far did you live here?
Question 16: Internet cafes allow you _____ your web-based e-mail account.
A. to access B. accessing C. access D. be accessed
Question 17: “Have fun, but don’t forget. You have to finish that paper.” “I know, Mom _______ it tomorrow. I already have the envelope.”
A. I’m mailing B. I won’t mail C. I mail D. I am going to mail
Question 18: We live near a special school for people who can’t hear.
A. the dump B. the deaf C. the blind D. the sick
Question 19: ______________ I told the absolute truth, no one would believe me.
A. because B. in spite of C. since D. Although
Question 20: Only one of the people _________ work in the company is qualified.
A. what B. which C. who D. where
Question 21: Henry _______________(live) in New York for ten years before he ___________ (move) to Chicago last month.
A. has lived/ move B. had lived/moved C. had lived/ has lived D. lived/had moved
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting
Question 22: They used to living in Finland, but now they live in France.
A B C D
Question 23: Television can make things memory because it presents information is an effective way.
A B C D
Question 24: I ‘ll give you a call if I ‘ll need some help tomorrow
A B C D
IV. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 25: A. paper B. famous C. rain D. channel
Question 26: A. picture B. suggest C. sunburnt D. Future
V. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 27 : A. Background B. career C. second D. private
Question 28 : A. alternate B. interfere C. stimulate D. satisfy
PART B: WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 1: Mary saw the map. She went to the hospital.
-> After………………………………………………………
Question 2: A dictionary is a book. This gives you the meaning of words. (Connector“Which”)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Write the correct form of the words in brackets.
Question 3: I think this game will be __________. (interest)
Question 4: They often go to Vung Tau at the weekend. (Wh– question)
……………………………………………………………………………
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 5: “ I’ll leave here tomorrow”, she said. (reported speech)
…………………………………………………………………………..
Question 6: Has somebody invited Lan to the party? (passive voice)
……………………………………………………………
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 7
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 7
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (0,5m)
1. A. paper B. famous C. play D. chanel
2. A. cow B. narrow C. follow D. know
II. IDENTIFYING THE ERRORS. Choose the underlined part which needs correcting (Tìm lỗi sai) (1m)
3. Many people suggest go there for their weekend.
A. B. C. D.
4. Dennis used to smoking a lot 7 years ago.
A. B. C. D.
5. A teacher is a person which gives lessons to students.
A. B. C. D.
6. Because of Lan is sick today. She can’t go to class.
A. B. C. D.
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY :
Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence: (1,5m)
7. A: “I think we should widen the roads”.
B: “_________. If the roads are widened, cars and lorries can get to our village”.
A. That’s a good idea B. I don’t agree with you. C. I don’t think so D. I agree with you.
8. They stop working ________ the heavy rain.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. Although
9. It’s cloudy and windy. It __________ rain.
A. will B. is going to C. is D. is being
10. I used ________ in Ha Noi 5years ago.
A. lives B. living C. lived D. to live
11. A computer is capable ________ doing almost anything you ask it to.
A. of B. about C. on D. in
12. Lan and Minh have lived in Ho Chi Minh city _______1999.
A. for B. since C. ago D. on
Use correct tense/forms of the verbs in each of the bracket. (2m)
13. She usually (get)____________up early every morning.
14. My father (read) ____________ books now.
15. When we arrived, the train (leave)___________.
16. They (go)__________ swimming last Saturday.
17. He used to (walk) ________in the park after dinner.
18. I enjoy (read)___________ your letter very much.
19. My friend let me (drive) _________ her car.
20. I’m thinking of (buy)___________ a car.
IV. READING. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. (2m)
Martin Luther King was born on 15th January 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia. In 1951, he went to Boston University, where he studied for 4 years. In 1952, he met Coretta Scott, and as soon as he saw her, he fell in love. They got married in 1953, and they had 4 children. In 1954, the King left Boston, and Martin became a minister at Baptist Church in Montgomery, Alabam A. Then he started working for the black freedom movement. Thousands of people walked to Washington to hear his famous speech at the Lincold Memorial in 1963, and he won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1964. He died on 4th April 1968 in Memphis, Tennessee, from a gunshot wound.
1. When and where was Martin Luther King born?
→______________________________________________________
2. How long did he study at Boston University?
→______________________________________________________
3. What kind of prize did Martin Luther King win in 1964?
→______________________________________________________
4. When did Martin Luther King die?
→______________________________________________________
V. WRITING (3m)
Build sentences base on suggestions.
1. More than 50 films / shown / been / in Hanoi / since June / have.
→______________________________________________________
2. Hanoi is very beautiful. It’s the capital of Vietnam. ( Use Which)
→______________________________________________________
3. They couldn’t go out for dinner because the rain was heavy. ( Use Because of)
→ _Because of____________________________________________
4. In spite of the cold weather, she wasn’t wearing a coat. ( Use “Although”)
→_Although______________________________________________
5. We have seen the film at home. ( Passive voice)
→_The film_____________________________________________________
6. “ I can’t help you because I have too much to do” (Reported speech: chuyển thành câu gián tiếp)
→_She said_______________________________________________
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 8
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 8
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
1. A. many B. hat C. cat D. sad
2. A. plays B. sprays C. clay D. says
3. A. little B. internet C. time D. click
4. A. watched B. wanted C. decided D. needed
5. A. washes B. tomatoes C. goes D. learns
Question II.Write the correct form of the verb in each bracket.
|
1. A lot of animals (kill) _____________in the flood for two months. |
|
2.Nam (not finish) ______________ his homework yet. |
|
3.My father gave up (smoke) _______ last year. |
|
4.There are a lot of black clouds in the sky.It (rain) _______ |
|
5.______they ______ (practice) their music lesson last night? |
6.They decided ( go)………………………… to the cinema tonight.
Question III.Give the correct form of the words given in brackets.
|
1.They are having a ______(WONDER) time in Da Lat. |
………………….. |
|
2.Mr and Mrs.John were very impressed by the _____ (FRIEND) of Vietnamese people. |
………………….. |
|
3.My brothers are _____(COLLECT). They have collected a lot of foreign stamps. |
………………….. |
|
4.Getting to the village is a very ______(INTEREST) journey. |
………………….. |
Question IV. Choose the best answer ( A, B ,C or D)
1.Her flight at 9.45 tomorrow morning.
A. leave B. leaves C. will leave D. is going to leave
2.He in Ho Chi Minh City since he was born.
A. lives B. lived C. is living D. has lived
3.I’m bored watching the advertisements on TV.
A. with B. on C. of D. in
4.I a new house last year, but I my old one yet.
A. bought/ hadn’t sold B. bought/ don’t sell
C. bought/ won’t sell D. bought/ haven’t sold
5.The coffee by the time I got up this morning.
A. was already made B. has already been made
C. had already been made D. would have already made
6. Everyone likes him, ?
A. doesn’t he B. doesn’t she C. don’t they D. don’t you
7. Christmas, the weather has been quite good.
A. from B. since C. on D. for
8. She taught in a school for the deaf and dump.
A. People who are unable to see.
B. People who are mentally ill.
C. People who have a bad memory.
D. People who are unable to hear and speak.
9. You can contact with the others by sending from your computer to theirs.
A. programs B. participants C. calculations D. messages
10. It’s essential that every student the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
11. I didn’t like Nam at first but now we very well with each other.
A. get on B. go on C. come on D. make on
12. Many women find it hard to both a job and a family.
A. catch up with B. deal with C. cope with D. keep up with
13. I usually avoid to parties because I have trouble people’s names.
A. go/ remember B. to go/ remember C. going/ remember D. to go/ remembering
14. Pierre often helped her, and they devoted all their time to working in their laboratory.
A. dedicated B. sent C. gave D. offered
15.We are contented with what we do.
A. interested in B. disappointed with C. satisfied with D. keen on
Question V. Read the passage then answer the questions below.
Chantal’s parents didn’t have much money, so they sent her to a state primary school when she was five. She enjoyed her reading and writing lessons, but there were so many pupils in the class that the teacher found it difficult to control them.
When Chantal was eleven, her father got a better job, and decided to spend some money on her education. He sent her to an expensive private school, where the girl wore dark green uniforms and did two hours’ homework every evening.
Chantal liked her new school, and did well. Because she studied hard, she passed all her exams, and went to university at eighteen. She chose history course and was an excellent student. In the end, she decided to become a teacher, and returned to her old primary school to teach.
1.Why did Chantal’s parents send her to a state primary school?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2.How many kinds of lessons did she like learning?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3.What was an important event for Chantal when she was eleven?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 4.What profession did she finally decide to choose?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Question VI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.
1.Nam couldn’t come to the party. This surprised everybody.(Using Which)
->…………………………………………….………………………………………
2.“Don’t stay up so late”, my father said.
-> My father told me…………………………………………………
3.We repainted the house last week.
-> The house ……………………………………………………………
4. My son didn’t go to the school because he was ill.
-> Because of ……………………………………………………………………
5.You must do this exercise carefully.
-> This exercise …………………………………………………
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 9
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. stops B. dates C. likes D. boxes
Question 2: A. dream B. mean C. peace D. head
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. fracture B. pressure C. cancel D. respect
Question 4. A. meaningful B. portable C. interact D. handkerchief
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. You were driving home when you saw Lan, _________?
A. didn’t you B. weren’t you C. wouldn’t you D. hadn’t you
Question 6: We decided to spend ______ summer in ______ seaside town.
A. a/the B. the/ 0 C. the/a D. 0/a
Question 7: The local residents suspected the authorities ______ having kept the pollution level secret from the local people.
A. about B. on C. of D. for
Question 8: We all enjoy _________English.
A. learn B. to learn C. learning D. learned
Question 9: If my husband __________ here now, He would help me to look after my sons
A.were B. is C. will be D. would be
Question 11: She didn’t walk home by herself _______ she knew that it was dangerous.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 12: He will go out with his friends ___________
A. as soon as he has completed his homework B. when he was completing his homework
C. until he complted his homework D. He shall have completed
Question 13: I have a message for people __________ by the traffic chaos.
A. to delay B. who delay C. delayed D. who delaying
Question 14: Jet lag causes problems with our _____ clock.
A. biological B. biology C. biologist D. biologically
Question 15: When I got to 16, some of my friends left school to get a job, but most _____.
A. dropped out B. moved back C. got in D. stayed on
Question 16: I hate it when people ______assumptions about me based on my skin color.
A. make B. do C. give D. take
Question 17: The _____ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.
A. wage B. pension C. salary D. income
Question 18. If you ______ too much on study, you will get tired and stressed.
A. concentrate B. develop C. organize D. complain
Question 19: Since he started his own business he has been making money hand over ________.
A. fist B. heel C. head D. palm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSES T in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Accumulations of sand can be formed by the action of waves on coastal beaches.
A. Acquisition B. Requirement C. Inquiry D. Acknowledgement
Question 21: The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.
A. punished B. promised C. commended D. persuaded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but such gender discrimination is now disappearing.
A. unfairness B. injustice C. partiality D. equality
Question 23: I’m not an impulsive person, I don’t generally do things on the spur of the moment.
A. quickly B. industriously C. intentionally D. attentively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nam is talking to Lan about the environmental problem today.
Nam: “What are the main threats to the environment today?”
Lan: “_____________.”
A. Threats are possible dangers to the environment
B. Probably deforestation and global warming.
C. Environmental pollution is a big issue for our planet
D. We need a clean environment to live in.
Question 25: Two friends are talking about the benefits of swimming .
Daisy: “As far as I know, swimming is a really helpful thing for everyone to improve their health.”
Mark: “_________________.”
A. That sounds great. B. I couldn’t agree with you more.
C. Take part in this summer. D. That’s fine for me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
GOOD FRIENDS
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to(26)_______our lives. The study concentrated on the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how (27) ________ contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances.
Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (28)________ to a far greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socio- economic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to (29) _________one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (30)__________, our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges.
(Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell)
Question 26: A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand
Question 27: A. much B. many C. few D. lots of
Question 28: A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance
Question 29: A. who B. whom C. what D. that
Question 30: A. otherwise B. for example C. Moreover D.However
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Since the early eighties, we have been only too aware of the devastating effects of large-scale environmental pollution. Such pollution is generally the result of poor government planning in many developing nations or the shortsighted, selfish policies of the already industrialized countries, which encourage a minority of the world’s population to squander the majority of its natural resources.
While events such as the deforestation of the Amazon jungle or the nuclear disaster in Chernobyl continue to receive high media exposure, as do acts of environmental sabotage, it must be remembered that not all pollution is on this grand scale. A large proportion of the world’s pollution has its source much closer to home. The recent spillage of crude oil from an oil tanker accidentally discharging its cargo straight into Sydney not only caused serious damage to the harbor foreshores but also created severely toxic fumes which hung over the suburbs for days and left the angry residents wondering how such a disaster could have been allowed to happen.
Avoiding pollution can be a fulltime job. Try not to inhale traffic fumes; keep away from Chemical plants and building-sites; wear a mask when cycling. It is enough to make you want to stay at home. But that, according to a growing body of scientific evidence, would also be a bad idea. Research shows that levels of pollutants such as hazardous gases, particulate matter and other chemical ‘nasties’ are usually higher indoors than out, even in the most polluted cities. Since the average American spends 18 hours indoors for every hour outside, it looks as though many environmentalists may be attacking the wrong target.
Question 31: The best title for this passage could be
A: the devastating effects of environmental pollution in some areas.
B: environmental pollution as a result of poor policies.
C: indoor pollution.
D: deforestation of the Amazon jungle.
Question 32: Which statement about Sydney harbor is probably TRUE according to the passage?
A: The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a ship refueling in the harbor.
B: The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a tanker pumping oil into the sea.
C: The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a collision between two oil tankers.
D: The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a deliberate act of sabotage.
Question 33: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to _____?
A. spillage B. crude oil C. an oil tanker D. pollution
Question 34: In the 3rd paragraph, the writer suggests that _____.
A. people should avoid working in cities
B. Americans spend too little time outdoors
C. hazardous gases are concentrated in industrial suburbs
D. there are several ways to avoid city pollution
Question 35: The word “nasties” in paragraph 3 means _____.
A. dirty B. kind C. composition D. dangerous
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old-fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging questions for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what these stereotypes are: A “feminine” girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little illogical in her thinking. A “masculine” boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive. How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated differently in the classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer constructive comments, when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It’s more important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For example, few people would give pink baby’s clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later, many of us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and construction sets. There’s nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are deemed appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the National Resource Center for Girls, Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
“The fact is,” says Nicholson, “that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work”. If we are serious about educating a generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their children, and to encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society’s fixed ideas about differences of sext are.
(Source: https://en.isicollective.com)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 37: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D.0 found that _______.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys’ behavior and girls’ manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 38: What does the word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 39: The word “deemed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 41: The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight paid for babysitting was _______.
A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 42: The word “counteract” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. had been laid off B. were C. What D. including
Question 44: The painting was so beautiful that I stood there admired it for a long time.
A. painting B. stood C. admired D. for
Question 45: The boy looked uncomfortable and out of place between the adults.
A. The boy B. uncomfortable C. out of D. between
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The sofa is less comfortable than the chair
A.The sofa is more comfortable than the chair.
B. The sofa is not as comfortable as the chair.
C. The chair is less comfortable than the sofa.
D. The chair is the most comfortable than the sofa
Question 47: He said, “My wife has bought a diamond ring since last year.”
A. He said that his wife had bought a diamond ring since the previous year.
B. He said that my wife had bought a diamond ring since the previous year.
C. He said that his wife has bought a diamond ring since last year.
D. He said that his wife just bought a diamond ring since the previous year..
Question 48: I am not sure that she will arrive at the party on time
A. She may not arrive at the party on time B. She mustn’t arrive at the party on time
C. She should arrive at the party on time. D. She doesn’t have to arrive at the party on time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I will lend you money. Make sure you pay me by Monday.
A. I will lend you money provided you pay back by Monday.
B. I won’t lend you money if you pay me by Monday
C. Unless you pay me by Monday, I will lend you money.
D. I won’t lend you money incase you pay me by Monday.
Question 50: She had a pain that she couldn’t go on working.
A. So painful was she that she couldn’t go on working.
B. Only when she had a pain could she not go on working
C. Without her pain, she couldn’t go on working.
D. Only if the pain she has could she go on working.
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 10
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1.A. mind B.intestine C. spine D. reliable
2.A.idol B. pop C.contest D. top
3.A. rest B.modest C.contest D.best
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
4. A. acupuncture B. benefit C. breadwinner D. contribute
5. A. achievement B. debate C. performance D. audience
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
6. Humans will enjoy longer life expectancy when they are more conscious of what they eat and do.
A. capable of B.aware of C. suitable for D. responsible for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
7. Apart from being used as an ingredient in cooking, turmeric also promotes many health benefits.
A. contributes to B. weakens C. discourages D. stimulates
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
8. She were given (A ) a (B) box full (C) of (D) chocolate.
9. Acupuncture is one (A) of the oldest (B) medical treatment (C) in (D) the world.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
10. “Do you know an apple a day can help you keep fit, build healthy bones and prevent disease like cancer?”
– “Wow! ____” A. I would love to. B. That’s incredible. C. You must like apple. D. It’s a good idea.
11. “What kind of music do you like?” ” ____”
A. I listen to music every day. B. I sing Vietnamese songs.
C. I think music is interesting D. I like folk music.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
12. Chopin is one of the greatest Romantic piano composers whose works are often technically…………………..
A. demand B. undemanding C. demanding D. demanded
13. The first ever Junior Eurovision Song Contest (JESC)…………………………………in Denmark, in 2003.
A. took place B. took part C. took advantage D. took care.
14.______ is the member of a family who earns the money that the family needs.
A. Husband B. Breadwinner C. Women D. Homemaker
15. That child has been eliminated______ the singing contest.
A. from B. in C. at D. by
16. I ____ my parents at the weekend. I already bought a train ticket.
A. visit B. visited C. am going to visit D. will visit
17. Many “American Idol” contestants went on to become huge stars, ……………………………..the popularity of American Idol” began to decrease.
A. and B. so C. but D. or
18. If you decide…………your car, let me……
A. to sell/ know B. selling/ to know C.to sell/ to know D. sell/ know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
19. This surprises me. A. I will be surprised by this. B. I am surprised by this.
C. I was surprised by this. D. I would have been surprised by this.
20. They changed the date of the meeting.
A. The date of the meeting was changed. B. The date of the meeting has been change by them.
C. The meeting has been changed the date. D. The date of the meeting is changed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. GOOD HEALTH
Most people would agree with the definition of good health as being a state (21)_______you are fiee from sickness. Despite this, there are many different opinions about how a person can actually have good health. People used to only think of their health when they were sick. But these days more and more people are taking measures to (22)_______sure that they don’t get sick in the first place.
One of the best things you can do for your body is exercise. But now much is enough? Some people think that doing simple things like cleaning the house is helpful. Other people do heavy exercise every day, (23)_______ instance, running or swimming. One thing experts do agree on is that any kind of exercise is good for you.Along with exercise, having a healthy diet can help promote good health. Foods like vegetables and fruit should (24)_____ several times each day. It is also important to eat foods high in fiber such as beans, grains, fruit and vegetables. Fiber helps your body to(25)_______ the food you eat. It also helps your body in other ways such as decreasing the chance of getting some cancers, heart disease and diabetes.
21. A. when B. how C. where D. Which
22. A. get B. make C. have D. take
23. A. by B. in C. for D. with
24. A. been eaten B. eating C. eat D. be eaten
25. A. pump B. consume C. digest D. spoil
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
‘The best age to start learning the violin is between three and six,’ says Margaret Porter, a violinist and music teacher. ‘It’s the time when you are learning about the world.’ Margaret, who lives in London, prefers to take pupils at three and four, although she has made lots of exceptions for keen five-year olds. When she started teaching the violin in 1972, her first class consisted of her children’s five-year-old school friends.
Margaret’s pupils have group lessons. Each group has about a dozen pupils and each lesson lasts an hour, once a fortnight. In addition, each pupil has one individual lesson a week with her. Parents also have to attend the classes. It is important that the parents take an active interest in the lessons.
From the earliest lessons pupils learn to play by ear. They do not even try to read music until they have been playing for several years, and for a long time there is a big difference between their playing and reading of music. Margaret says that her method is not supposed to produce great violinists, and always suggests that pupils who perform particularly well should leave and study the violin using more traditional methods.
26. When did Margaret Porter start teaching the violin?
A. at the age of 36 B. in 1972 C. in 1927 D. at the age of 34
27. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
|
A. explain why Margaret likes teaching the violin |
B. describe a different way of learning the violin |
|
C. give advice on how to find a music teacher |
D. explain why Margaret has a lot of pupils |
28. The word “keen” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to…….
A. very interested B. very talented C. very intelligent D. very obedient
29. What opinion does Margaret have about her best pupils?
|
A. They ought to find another teacher. |
B. They will become great violinists using her method. |
|
C. They could try harder. |
D. They take several years to learn to read music. |
30. Margaret’s first pupils were…………………
|
A. her children |
B. three-and four-year-olds |
C. her own friends |
D.her children’s friends. |
WRITING:
Give the right form of the verbs in brackets:
31. Where are the children? They (do)………….……………………judo in the room now.
32. They (not go)………………………………..to school on Sundays.
Change the sentences into passive voice:
33. They don’t speak English in this country.
34. Somebody built the house ten years ago.
Use the words or phrases given to write meaningful sentences.
35. Do Nhuan/ first Vietnamese/ who / trained/ Tchaikovsky Conservatory.
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 11
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 11
1. A. prevent B. response C. decide D. present
2. A. meaningful B. finance C. society D. advice
Stress
3. A. attractive B. perceptive C. cultural D. expensive
4. A. delicious B. sensitive C. negative D. sociable
Vocabulary and Grammar
5. When you do something good for others, you will find your life _______.
A. meaningless B. hopeless C. harmful D. meaningful
6. Doing volunteer work, we are more______ of global problems facing our world.
A. aware B. devote C. communicate D. dedicate
7. Users can look up locations as well as directions to different places on _______ .
A. Google Drives B. Google Maps C. Google images D. Google news
8. In my family, my father always takes charge of doing the ______ lifting.
A. hard B. huge C. strong D. heavy
9. _______ the rubbish in the early morning is a part of my daily routine.
A. Pulling out B. Bringing out C. Coming out D. Taking out
10. To Hoa, her father is the greatest person in the world and he always sets a good _____ for her.
A. role B. example C. behaviour D. action
11. Students ________ have smartphones can use them to look up words in an electronic dictionary.
A. who B. whose C. which D. whom
12. I was _______ by his rude behaviour yesterday.
A. surprised B. surprise C. surprising D. surprises
13. The movie was______________. We couldn’t watch it until ending.
A. bore B. bored C. boring D. to bore
14. Don’t forget _______ your homework tonight!
|
|
A. |
doing |
B. |
to do |
C. |
to be done |
D. |
having done |
15. We have a test on Monday, so we _______ carefully.
A. will revise B. are revising C. have revised D. revised
16. Listen! There’s someone at the door. I ______ the door for you.
A. will open B. am going to open C. open D. am opening
17. Hurry up, Linh. Other friends ______ for us.
A. is waiting B. wait C. are waiting D. waits
18. Each member in my class ______ zalo account to interact with our form teacher.
A. has B. have C. are having D. is having
19. I found it difficult at first, but now I _______ working on the computer.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
20. This system of the body is _______ up of our bones.
A. made B. taken C. done D. got
21. Acupuncture modality relies on sophisticated skills to select appropriate acupoints to______ needles accurately.
A. insert B. inject C. infuse D. install
22. Last year, my class _______ to teach the street children in our city.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. volunteered D. volunteers
23. ________ the technological revolution is opening up a whole new world, many people are worried by it.
|
A. However |
B. Despite |
C. Because |
D. Although |
24. I went to buy a Rolling Stones CD, _______ the shop didn’t have it.
A. and B. so C. but D. or
25. Doctor: “How long has your headache been going on?” Patient: “________”
A. Last month B. Three times a day C. For a week D. After midnight
26. “I don’t think we should exercise late at night.” – “____”
A. I think so, too. B. So do I. C. Neither do I. D. I don’t, neither.
Closest in meaning
27. Those volunteers are so devoted that not only the children but also their parents love them very much.
A. dedicated B. interested C. concerned D. excited
28. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Opposite in meaning
29. Setting and clearing the table, making bed and taking out the trash are suitable chores for 8- to 10-years-old children.
A. acceptable B. inappropriate C. Reasonable D. proper
30. Parents are recommended to collaborate with teachers in educating children.
A. disagree B. separate C. cooperate D. part
Error Identifying
31. Trung borrowed my dictionary for look up the spelling of the word “occurrence”.
A B C D
32. Look at these big black clouds in the sky ! It will rain.
A B C D
33. Sometimes it is difficult to avoid to drink when we enjoy an informal party.
A B C D
Read the passage and choose the right word to fill in the blank
on in is used to is to send around the world connected to seen and read
The Internet is a large group of computers that are (1) ……..……… each other. The Internet is used to send information quickly between computers (2) ….. …..……. The Internet is used for many things, such as electronic mail, online chat, file transfer, and the interlinked web pages. The most used service (3) _______ the Internet is the World Wide Web (which is also called the “Web”). The Web contains websites, blogs and also Wikipedia. Web pages on the internet can be (4) …….…… by anyone (unless the page needs a password, or it is blocked). The second major use of the Internet (5) ……..…….. and receive e-mail. E-mail is private and goes from one user to another. Instant messaging (such as AIM or ICQ) is similar to email, but allows two or more people to chat to each other much faster.
Key: 1. connected to 2. around the world 3. on 4. seen and read 5. is to send
Read the passage and choose the correct answer
Chen likes to get his news from the paper. Lemma turns on the television to find out what’s going on in the world. Eve subscribes to more magazines than she can keep track of, whereas Kobi chooses to listen to radio talk shows that cover issues thoroughly to tap into what’s going on in the world. All these people are touched by the media.
What is the media? What constitutes the media? The media consists of all the ways that news and information is distributed to a mass audience. The media covers everything from hard news, which is investigative reporting to stories that are purely entertaining, such as whether your favorite movie star was on the “Best Dressed/ Worst Dresser list. Whether in print or broadcast on TV, the stories are the product of the reporting of many journalists who write the stories, and editors who give out the assignments, assess the quality of the writing and research, and make the decisions about where and when the stories run.
The news has immediate impact. The Internet puts global news onto the personal computer on your desk. Almost all browsers have links to up-to-the-minute news stories from various news services. You can get constant news updates from a variety of sources via your personal computer, providing you with the most up-to-date and in-depth coverage.
1. According to the writer, __________________
A. people’s life can be changed by the media.
B. newspapers, magazines, televisions, radios are all the mass media.
C. people can only get news from the paper.
D. radio talk shows cover thorough issues.
2. According to the passage, the media __________________________
A. spreads not only news but also entertainment to audiences.
B. investigates news reports that will be covered.
C. only distributes hard news to people.
D. consists of news and information all over the world.
3. Which one of the following is not a responsibility of editors?
A. Judge the writings and researches. B. Assign tasks.
C. Write reports on the stories. D. Decide when and where tile stories run.
4. The word ‘browsers” in line 15 refers to __________________________
A. programs used by computers for doing particular jobs.
B. people who look for information on the Internet for studying.
C. computer programs that allow users to look at and design the Web.
D. computer programs that allow users to look at and search through information on the Internet.
5. An advantage of Internet news reports is that _______________________
A. they can be constantly updated.
B. they link news from various news services.
C. they provide a variety of information.
D. they can be put onto the personal computer.
Rewrite these sentences
1. He will solve the problem soon.
-> …………………………………………………..
2. She started playing Pinterest site a year ago.
-> She has ……………………………………………………………………………
3. When did you have a Facebook account?
-> How long ………………………………………………………………….. ?
Sentence building
1. My family/ decorate/ Christmas trees/ now.
->………………………………………………………..
2. Mother Teresa / not only /become/ famous but also/ be/ awarded / her devotion.
->…………………………………………………………………………………
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 12
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 12
I. LISTENING:
Listen to the conversation and do the exercises to practise and improve your listening skills.
Are the sentences true or false?
Band auditions
Question 1. The boy wants to be in the band.
Question 2. He doesn’t like singing.
Question 3. He can’t remember the song on the guitar.
Question 4. The boy is good at the drums.
Question 5. The girl says she will call him the next day.
Listen to the radio interview about boy bands and do the exercises to practise and improve your listening skills.
Choose the correct option to complete the sentences.
Boy bands
Question 6. The most important thing for boy bands in the past was that _________
A. they had some musical ability
B. they could dance well
C. they had different personalities
Question 7. Things have changed because ________
A. people wanted something different
B. the media and new technology influence things differently
C. both of the above
Question 8. Starting on a reality show like X Factor is great for a band because _________
A. appearing on TV is the quickest way to get famous
B. the many viewers who vote every week become loyal fans
C. people feel a personal connection with bands they see on TV
Question 9. The words to One Direction songs are designed to _______
A. make teenage girls feel good about themselves
B. appeal to mums by being a bit cheeky
C. communicate universal messages about love
Question 10. One Direction’s clothes _________
A. are very individual and they each have a strong look
B. create a clean-cut, safe and non-threatening image
D. are casual and fashionable with a touch of rebelliousness
II. PHONETICS – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FOCUS
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 11.
A. lung B. nurture
C. muscle D. brush
Question 12.
A. different B. critical
C. intestine D. dining table
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
Question 13.
A. nervous B. prevent
C. healthy D. system
Question 14.
A. grocery B. memory
C. incredible D. balance
Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence.
Question 15. People tend to live in…………family which consist of parents and children.
A. blended B. nuclear
C. extended D. single-parent
Question 16. “Who……………..?” “…………………to get through to Misaki”
A. do you phone/ I’m trying
B. are you phoning/ I’m trying
C. are you phoning/ I try
D. do you phone/ / I try
Question 17. I ……………….one of my special desserts for dinner, if you like.
A. make B. am going to make
C. will make D. am making
Question 18. The next train to Dublin …………. at 4:45. ( station announcement)
A. will leave B. is leaving
C. is going to to leave D. leaves
Question 19. Mark is _________ with the volunteer work in this charity organization. He is not very ________ about getting a paid job next time.
A. disappointed/ hopeful
B. disappointed/ hopeless
C. disappointing/ hopefulness
D. disappointing/ hopes
Question 20. It is__________that controls all the organs in the body.
A. heart B. brain
C. spine D. nerves
Question 21. __________takes place when the female provides the main source of income for the family
A. Breadwinner Mom
B. Breadwinner Dad
C. Breadwinner
D. Breadwinner male
Question 22. The ____________system is to process the nutrients absorbed from the small intestine.
A. Respiratory B. Circulatory
C. Digestive D. Skeletal
Question 23. Students should have their eyes ____________ regularly.
A. tested B. to test
C. test D. testing
Error identification.
Question 24. Roles (A) in homemaking (B) and breadwinning can share (C) by family members (D).
Question 25. It didn’t take (A) her much (B) time to do (C) the laundry because (D) she has a washing machine.
Question 26. I shall contact (A) you as soon as (B) they will phone (C) me (D).
Question 27. Our (A) new neighbour (B) is (C) a bored (D) man.
III. READING
Read the passage and choose the best answer:
FOOD AROUND THE WORLD
It isn’t amazing how much time we spend talking about food? “Have you ever eaten …?”, “What do you have for lunch?” and so on. And yet, when you travel from one county to another, you find that people have quite different feelings about food. People often feel that what they eat is normal, and what other people eat is strange and silly. In most parts of Asia, for example, no meal is complete without rice. In England, people eat potatoes every day. In the Middle East, bread is the main part of every meal. Eating becomes a habit which is difficult to change. Americans like to drink a lot of orange juice and coffee. The English drink tea four or five times a day. Australians drink large amounts of beer and the French drink wine every day.
The sorts of meat people like to eat also differ from one country to another. Horse meat is thought to be delicious in France. In Hong Kong, some people enjoy eating snakes. New Zealanders eat sheep, but never eat goat meat. The Japanese don’t like to eat sheep meat because of its smell, but they enjoy eating raw fish. So it seems that although eating is a topic that we can talk about for hours, there is a little common sense in what we say about it. People everywhere enjoy what they have always eaten, and there is very little we can do to change our eating habit.
Question 28. What is the main idea of the text?
A. People have the same feelings about food.
B. People think about food differently.
C. People think that no meal is perfect without rice.
Question 29. According to the writer, where is bread the main food?
A. In Asia
B. In Japan
C. In Middle East
Question 30. Which of these people drink wine every day?
A. Americans
B. Australians
C. The French
Question 31. Why are the Japanese not interested in sheep meat?
A. They don’t like its smell.
B. It tastes bad.
C. Horse meat and goat meat are popular.
Question 32. In which country do people often drink beer?
A. France
B. Australia
C. England
Question 33. Which is popular food in Japan?
A. Fish
B. Horse meat
C. Goat meat
Question 34. How does the writer conclude about our eating habit?
A. Our eating habit is difficult to change.
B. People everywhere enjoy eating new food.
C. We can change our eating habit easily.
IV. WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences using the words given so that it means exactly the same as the first sentence.
Question 35. The gardener waters the flowers every evening.
⟹ The flowers _________________
Question 36. My nephew often flied a kite in this field when he was a child.
⟹ My nephew used _______________
Question 37. I last saw my cousin two years ago.
⟹ I haven’t ________________
Question 38. It is believed that the wanted man is living in New York.
⟹ The wanted man ________________
Question 39. Her boyfriend forgot to take her to the movie theatre.
⟹ Her boyfriend didn’t remember _________________
Question 40. He sang Sarah the whole song many times.
⟹ Sarah listened him ________________
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 13
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 13
PHONETICS
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. approach B. children C. chocolate D. stomach
Choose the word whose stress part is different from the rest.
2. A. breadwinner B. acupuncture C. disease D. allergy
USE OF LANGUAGE
Choose the best answer for each of the following sentences.
3. Be quiet! Someone _____ at the front door. I ______ it.
A. has knocked / am going to answer B. is knocking / will answer
C. knocks / am answering D. is knocking / answer
4. After eating dinner, I have to do the ____ and then do my homework every day.
A. washing – up B. wash – up C. washing – ups D. washings – up
5. These flowers are fresh. They ____ from the garden.
A. have just been picked C. have been picked just
B. have been just picked D. just have been picked
6. My mother and I often go to the supermarket to shop for _____ at weekends.
A. cook B. groceries C. heavy lifting D. the chores
7. My boyfriend intends to have a part – time job. He ______ in a restaurant in the summer.
A. will work B. is going to work C. works D. shall work
9. Everyone in my family has to do the share of ______ because my parents go out to work.
A. household chores B. happiness C. responsibility D. employment
10. If people breathe in deeply, their ____ can expand to twice their normal size.
A. hearts B. kidneys C. lungs D. stomachs
11. Acupuncture can treat from simple to complicated ailments.
A. diseases B. acupoints C. points D. treatments
12. Food is broken down and converted into energy in the ____ system.
A. circulatory B. skeletal C. digestive D. respiratory
13. Our parents needn’t ask us ______________our rooms. We do it every day.
A. tidy up B. to tidy up C. tidying up D. tidy
14. She was a pianist with potential, ____ her parents persuade her to complete her secondary school.
A. and B. or C. but D. so
Find the mistake in each sentence.
15. The workshop is so interesting that we aren’t wanting to leave now.
A B C D
16. Jane advised Andrew look for a new job
A B C D
Give the correct word form of the words in brackets.
17. Be _______________ (care) not to wake the baby.
18. I have __________________ (responsible) for clearing up the room after the class.
READING
Read the passage carefully and then choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Lora: I might retire early. I don’t know. I’m 55 and my husband retired last year. He spends most of his time in the garden. I’d really like to be there with him though I am not quite fond of the tasks. I’m definitely going to learn a new language. I hate going abroad and speaking English.
Cass: I’m only 26, so I’m not going to retire soon! In fact I want to have more chances to earn our living. Jaime and I are going to have a baby next year and we’re really excited about that. We want to have a big family and live in a big house. Then, when I retire, my children and grandchildren will all be able to stay.
Sue: Well, Roger and I don’t agree about retiring. I love work and I don’t want to retire! I know I won’t have anything to do.
Roger: I asked my boss at work recently and I might be able to retire next year. I might buy a house in France and spend the time that my family deserved to have with me long before. I’d love to have my first long-awaited visit to Paris with my wife one day.
Linda: I want to retire as soon as possible. I have three sons and now I don’t even have time to play with them. They will become mature very soon and don’t want to spend quality time with me. I can’t stand the thought.
19. The reason Lora looks forward to her retirement is because _____.
A. her husband has already retired B. she likes doing gardening
C. she hates travelling abroad D. she likes to learn English
20. Which of the following is NOT true about Cass?
A. His baby is born the following year B. He wants his family to live in a big house.
C. He wants to retire soon D. He wants to earn more money
21. Who does NOT want to retire shortly?
A. Linda B. Sue C. Roger D. Lora
22. Roger _____.
A. has spent enough time with his family already B. will ask his boss for retirement next year
C. has never been to Paris before D. doesn’t want to go to Paris
23. The word “mature” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. old B. grown – up C. childish D. young
Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each gap.
One of the best things you can do for your body is exercise. But how (24) ____ is enough? Some people think that doing simple things like cleaning the house is helpful. Other people do heavy exercises every day, (25) ___ instance, running or swimming. One thing experts do agree on is that (26) ___ kind of exercise is good for you.
Along with exercise, having a healthy diet can help promote good health. Foods like vegetables and fruit should (27) ___ several times each day. It is also important to eat foods high in fiber such as beans, grains, fruit and vegetables. Fibers helps your body to (28) ___ the food you eat. It also helps your body in other ways such as decreasing the chance of getting some cancers, hearts disease and diabetes.
24. A. far B. many C. more D. much
25. A. by B. for C. in D. with
26. A. all B. any C. both D. some
27. A. eat B. eating C. been eaten D. be eaten
28. A. consume B. digest C. pump D. spoil
WRITING
Rewrite the sentences without changing their meaning.
29. A temporary manager is running the shop at the moment.
The shop ______________________________________________________________________.
30. He has Mr. Hung explain the lesson again.
He has ________________________________________________________________________.
LISTENING. 1. Listen and circle the correct answer.
|
1. What does the woman want? B. renting the car for an extra day
2. Listen and fill the gaps to complete the sentences below.
1. Susan spends more time on ……………………………… show. 2. The music makes their work and study more……………………………… 3………………………………………………….…… was fantastic and special competition. 4. In this contest, the coaches choose each team of fourteen outstanding………………………. only via listening. 5. The contestant attracted her most by his special………………………………. as well as his incredible………………………………… although his look wasn’t his strength
|
4. What are the boys going to have?
|
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 14
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 14
I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.
1. A. take B. family C. grateful D. table
2. A. nursing B. nurture C. turn D. future
3. A. society B. sociable C. groceries D. finance
II. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.
4. A. breadwinner B. homemaker C. washing-up D. equally
5. A. routine B. laundry C. household D. finance
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
6. Do you have to do ?
A. the mess B. your bed C. the washing-up D. the cook
7. Do you have to the rubbish out?.
A. take B. make C. empty D. do
8. My mother the responsibility for running the household.
A. holds B. takes C. runs D. bears
9. We share the house with our grandparents and our uncle’s family. It is a(n) family
A. nuclear B. extended C. crowded D. multi-generation
10. Are you free on Sunday evening? I’d like to to the cinema?
A. ask you B. ask out you C. ask you out D. ask you away
11. My mother is very good at her time between work and family.
A. leaving B. splitting C. sharing D. taking
12. When a couple can chores in a way that both spouses feel satisfied with the outcome, they are showing mutual respect for one another.
A. cut B. run C. take D. divide
13. The children, all three, have done , mopped, dusted, helped on the house and in the yard.
A. laundry B. clothes C. groceries D. rubbish
14. Our parents hands to provide for the family and make it happy.
A. were joining B. are always joining C. join D. joins
15. My grandparents with my family at present and my grandmother me how to cook several traditional Vietnamese dishes.
A. stay – instructs B. stay – is instructing
C. are staying – instructs D. are staying – is instructing
IV. Fill in each blank with the correct word/phrase from the box.
breadwinner heavy lifting iron chores responsibilities
share nurture homemaker groceries laundry
16. If your partner has agreed to buy the , you might plan the week’s meals and make the shopping list.
17. We should pay attention to the conditions that and strengthen early childhood development and health across the life course.
18. Past studies have shown that couples who household chores report feeling happier overall.
19. Couples who share at home are happier overall.
20. It takes a housewife a lot of time to clothes for the household.
21. I have watched my husband and children take over much of my role as a
22. The husband replaces the light bulbs while the wife does the .
23. Nowadays in nuclear families, homemaker and roles have evolved into something that makes it impossible to define exactly.
24. Many couples find that they look at the division of differently.
25. Men and boys do most of the in the family.
V. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best tits the blank space in the following passage.
Working Mothers
In the United States today, more than half of mothers with young children work, compared to about one third (26) 1970s. Women have been moving into the workforce not only for career (27) but also for the income.
In many families today, mothers continue to work because they have careers that they have spent years (28) . Some women (29) to work soon after (30) birth because they know that most employers are not sympathetic to working mothers who wish to take time off to be with their young children.
Some people still think that a “good mother” is one who (31) work to stay home with her children. However, no scientific evidence says children are harmed when their mothers work. A child who is emotionally well adjusted, well loved, and well cared for will thrive regardless of (32) the mother works outside the home.
In most families with working mothers, each person (33) a more active role in the household. The children tend to (34) one another and help in other ways. The father as a (35) is more likely to help with household chores and child rearing. These positive outcomes are most likely when the working mother feels valued and supported by family, friends, and coworkers.
26. A. in B. in the C. at D. at the
27. A. enjoy B. satisfy C. satisfaction D. pleasant
28. A. develop B. to develop C. developing D. developed
29. A. return B. turn C. happen again D. exchange
30. A. producing B. making C. taking D. giving
31. A. gives up B. stop C. end D. puts up
32. A. where B. when C. how D. whether
33. A. plays B. does C. makes D. takes
34. A. look at B. look after C. look for D. look up
35. A. bread B. breadwinning C. breadstick D. breadwinner
VI. Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
Home Life in Japan
It is common in Japan for three generations to live under the same roof. This is becoming less common today, but still exists, certainly in the countryside.
Husbands in Japan give their salaries to their wives. They are returned a sum of money as pocket money, otherwise how to use the rest is the wife’s decision. The finances of a family are the responsibility of the women who handle most of the household expenses. There are exceptions in instances when something of value, like a car, is being bought. This is changing with more women going to work.
Japanese fathers in contemporary urban households spend so much time at work, and the company demands on them are so great. It means that they often really have very little time or energy to spend with their children. The responsibility for raising children, overseeing the education fall onto the mothers. Mothers play an enormous role in the lives of their children and the bond is very strong. Babysitters are rarely used and mothers often sleep with their babies. A mother will also spend hours with children doing school work. Few Japanese men help with housework. There is more pressure today for this to change.
Most families in Japan today are nuclear families, such as those in the United States. That is to say that a married couple lives together with their children, perhaps with one grandparent. But for the most part, the Japanese family today looks much like the American family.
36. In Japan, extended families are still popular .
A. in big cities B. in the countryside C. everywhere D. in urban areas
37. A Japanese woman is responsible for all of these EXCEPT .
A. raising children B. handle household expenses
C. making decisions on very valuable things D. taking care of children’s school work
38. Japanese fathers in contemporary urban households .
A. are under great pressure of work B. are responsible for most household chores
C. handle most of the household expenses D. stay at home to work as babysitters
39. Nowadays there is a pressure that men should .
A. earn more money B. help their wives with housework
C. leave important decisions to their wives D. work harder at work
40. Most families in Japan nowadays may be .
A. extended families B. three-generation families
C. the same as the traditional ones D. similar to those in the Western
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 15
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 15
I. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.
1. A. therapy B. respiratory C. medical D. vessel
2. A. almond B. sesame C. avocado D. massage
3. A. allergy B. imagine C. sugar D. oxygen
II. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the other.
4. A. alternative B. acupuncture C. original D. respiratory
5. A. stimulate B. skeleton C. pyramid D. digestive
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
6. Fish, poultry, beans, or nuts half of the dinner plate.
A. make B. make out C. make up D. make of
7. Ailments are caused by a(n) of yin and yang.
A. imbalance B. unequal C. abnormal D. ineffectiveness
8. In some remote parts of the world, herbs may be the only treatment to the majority of people.
A. leading B. available C. easy D. access
9. There are foods that can help you fall asleep or keep you .
A. wake B. waking C. waking up D. awake
10. Liver is a large organ in the body which the blood.
A. cleans B. cleans up C. is cleaning D. is cleaning up
11. The Healthy Eating Pyramid reminds us to our intake of salt and added sugar.
A. limit B. stop C. avoid D. remove
12. When acupuncture correctly, it is very safe for patients.
A. performs B. will be performed C. is performed D. will have performed
13. You should see a doctor if your nosebleed by an injury, such as a punch.
A. caused B. were causing C. was caused D. will be caused
14. If your retina records the image well, your brain the image, and you image clearly.
A. will interpret – will see B. interpret – see
C. is going to interpret – are going to see D. is interpreting – are seeing
15. At your eye exam, you to read from an eye chart.
A. will probably ask B. are going to ask
C. will probably be asked D. are asking
IV. Rewrite the following sentences using the passive.
16. The acupuncturist will ask the patient to lie down.
_______________________________________________________
17. The acupuncturist should use single-use disposable sterile needles.
_______________________________________________________
18. As the acupuncturist inserts each needle, the patient will feel them, but initially without pain.
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
19. Sometimes people heat the needles or stimulate them with electricity after insertion.
_______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
20. People keep the needles in acupoints for about twenty minutes.
_______________________________________________________
V. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
Benefits of spiritual healing
Spiritual healing can be very effectively used to solve numerous physical, mental and emotional problems. Spiritual healing can help eliminate physical and mental problems and give great health benefits.
Spiritual healing is often confused with (21) healing. Although many techniques in spiritual healing encourage believing in a greater power and positive universal forces, it does not force any particular faith or religious belief. Spiritual curing has been around in all (22) .
The most obvious health benefits of spiritual healing can be seen on the (23) level. People with high blood pressure, cholesterol, body pains, migraines, back aches etc. have cured their (24) by means of spiritual healing techniques. One can see considerable (25) of blood pressure and cholesterol, better sleep patterns, less worrying, and healing of aches and pains of the body after using spiritual healing techniques.
The mind and body are interconnected, involved elements and the well-being of one can have a great (26) on the other. Therefore, a healthy mind is resided in a healthy body and a healthy body is a (27) of a healthy mind.
Once a person eliminates the worrying habit and incorporates positive thinking, the mind can do (28) . It can help you imagine and create wonderful things, (29) goals and achieve them. This process of focusing (30) the positive to improve the mental health can boost your creativity.
21. A. faith B. faithful C. belief D. believable
22. A. land B. heritage C. cultures D. nation
23. A. mental B. physical C. exercising D. medicine
24. A. feelings B. viruses C. therapies D. ailments
25. A. stopping B. lowering C. cutting D. controlling
26. A. result B. affect C. impression D. effect
27. A. cause B. result C. effect D. action
28. A. wonders B. wonderful C. awesome D. progress
29. A. score B. make C. set D. reach
30. A. on B. in C. at D. Ø
VI. Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
Teenagers and Sleep
Sleep is food for the brain. During sleep, important body functions and brain activity occur. Skipping sleep can be harmful, even deadly, particularly if you are behind the wheel. You can look bad, you may feel moody, and you perform poorly. Sleepiness can make it hard to get along with your family and friends and hurt your scores on school exams. Sleepiness can lead to aggressive or inappropriate behavior such as yelling at your friends or being impatient with your teachers or family members.
Sleep is vital to your well-being, as important as the air you breathe, the water you drink and the food you eat. It can even help you to eat better and manage the stress of being a teenager.
Teenagers need about 8 to 10 hours of sleep each night to function best. Most teens do not get enough sleep: one study found that only 15% reported sleeping 8 hours and a half on school nights. Not getting enough sleep or having sleep difficulties can limit your ability to learn, listen, concentrate and solve problems.
Teens tend to have irregular sleep patterns across the week – they typically stay up late and sleep in late on the weekends, which can affect their biological clocks and hurt the quality of their sleep.
Consuming caffeine close to bedtime can hurt your sleep, so avoid coffee, tea, soda and chocolate late in the day, and you can get to sleep at night. Nicotine and alcohol will also interfere with your sleep.
A consistent sleep schedule will help you feel less tired since it allows your body to get in synchronization with its natural patterns. You will find that it’s easier to fall asleep at bedtime with this type of routine.
31. Sleepiness is harmful because .
A. our scores at school may be low and the relationship with others becomes worse
B. important body functions and brain activity occur during sleep
C. you can look bad behind the wheel
D. can lead to appropriate behaviors or being patient with your teachers or family members
32. In order to function best, teenagers need .
A. at least 10 hours of sleep each night B. over about 10 hours of sleep night
C. about 8 to 10 hours of sleep each night D. 8 hours and a half on school nights
33. All of the following are bad sleeping habits EXCEPT .
A. having coffee or tea close to bedtime B. staying up very late on the weekends
C. having nicotine and alcohol D. having the same sleep pattern
34. A consistent sleep schedule is very important because .
A. it will helps you feel less tired during daytime
B. you have less difficulty in falling asleep at bedtime
C. nicotine and alcohol will not interfere with your sleep
D. it is easier for you to fall asleep at any time
35. The word “consistent” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. not changing B. agreeing C. similar D. changeable
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 16
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 16
I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.
1. A. pop B. idol C. contest D. top
2. A. compare B. album C. talent D. fan
3. A. franchise B. release C. contest D. post
II. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.
4. A. contest B. talent C. album D. debate
5. A. concert B. award C. release D. compose
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
6. The tragic end of “Swan Lake” shows that magic is over love.
A. power B. powerful C. powerless D. powerfully
7. Van Cao’s Tien Quan Ca was made into the national of the Socialist Republic of Viet Nam.
A. song B. music C. melody D. anthem
8. Chopin is one of the greatest Romantic piano composers whose works are often technically .
A. demand B. demanding C. undemanding D. demanded
9. Fantasia Barrino, the winner of American Idol’s season 3 in 2004, released her Free Yourself which earned three Grammy Award nominations.
A. debut album B. live performance C. local version D. live programme
10. That teen idol was to win second place in the Idol Contest in 2010.
A. talent B. being talented C. talented D. talentless
11. Her teachers and schoolmates noticed her a deep love of music during her childhood.
A. develop B. to develop C. developing D. developed
12. A playoff is an extra game in a competition played between two teams or competitors who both have the same scores the winners.
A. decide B. to decide C. deciding D. to deciding
13. Hat Boi involves singing with distinctive vocal production techniques, symbolic gestures, it is extremely difficult to perform requires special training in the art form.
A. and – but B. so – but C. so – and D. but – and
14. Scenes in Cai Luong are elaborate they are changed frequently throughout the play.
A. and B. or C. but D. so
15. Many “American Idol” contestants went on to become huge stars, the popularity of “American Idol” began to decrease.
A. and B. but C. so D. or
III. Fill in each blank in the passage with the correct word/phrase from the box.
folk songs musical theater folk style genres characters
music band peasants techniques costumes royal court
Vietnamese Traditional Theater
Despite being strongly influenced by Chinese opera and other art forms, Vietnamese theater with three special (16) : Tuong singing, Cheo singing and Cai Luong singing, which have been modified to be suitable for Vietnamese people.
Tuong singing is a form of art imported from China around the 13th century. Tuong singing (also known as Boi singing) was originally used as entertainment for the (17) and was later performed by traveling troupes for commoners and (18) . One typical feature of Tuong singing is the use of well-known stock characters who wear elaborate make-up and (19) to represent the (20) that they are performing.
Cheo singing is a satirical (21) dating back to the 12th century under the Ly Dynasty. Traditionally, Vietnamese peasants in northern Viet Nam usually danced when singing folk songs and another (22) plays fiddle, flute and drum.
Cai Luong (Renovated Opera) appeared in the southern part of Viet Nam in the 1920s and flourished as an entertaining theatre of the middle class under the French colonial period. The special imprints of this (23) on audience are the harmonious combination of southern Vietnamese (24) , classical music, Tuong singing and modern drama as well as the use of extensive vibrato (25) .
Note: genre (n) = a style, especially in the arts, that involves a particular set of characteristics
V. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
Quan Ho – Typical Northern Vietnamese music
It is hard to talk about the origin of Quan Ho singing, but it was first (26) in the 13th century. Quan Ho is a singing battle where “lien chi” (female singers) sing “cau ra” (a challenge phrase), then “lien anh” (male singers) will (27) by selecting and singing “cau doi” (a matching phrase). The order will be (28) in the next time.
(29) Quan Ho was unaccompanied by instruments but only (30) of singers to compose rhythm. Quan Ho performances today are accompanied by some (31) instruments, such as monochord or bamboo flute, etc.
Themes of most of the songs are love songs with romantic and sentimental lyrics which have been (32) by (33) .
Quan Ho songs possess the spirit of local people and help tighten (34) among villages. Quan Ho singing is an old Vietnamese type of art that needs (35) .
26. A. recorded B. broadcast C. performed D. written
27. A. answer B. say C. respond D. tell
28. A. changed B. turned C. varied D. reserved
29. A. Tradition B. Traditional C. Traditionally D. Tradition of
30. A. voices B. songs C. music D. volumes
31. A. music B. musical C. musically D. musician
32. A. passed B. passed by C. passed on D. passed away
33. A. mouth B. mouth of word C. word of mouth D. words of mouth
34. A. distances B. space C. roads D. bonds
35. A. preserve B. to preserve C. being preserved D. preserving
VI. Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, c or D for each question.
Ca Tru was also called “Hat A Dao” or “Hat Noi”. Originally, attractive young female singers entertained men in a relaxed environment, sometimes serving drinks and snacks. Men might have visited a “Hat A Dao” inn with friends to celebrate a successful business deal or the birth of a son.
Ca Tru flourished in the 15th century in northern Vietnam when it was popular with the royal palace and a favourite hobby of aristocrats and scholars. Later, it was performed in communal houses, inns, and private homes, and gained its high popularity. These performances were mostly for men. When men entered a Ca Tru inn, they purchased bamboo tally cards. In Chinese Vietnamese, “tru” means “card”, and “ca” means “song” in Vietnamese, so the name Ca Tru means tally card songs. The tallies were given to the singers in appreciation for the performance. After the performance each singer received payment in proportion to the number of cards received.
Ca Tru requires at least three performers. The singer is always a woman and plays the “phach”, an instrument made of wood or bamboo that is beaten with two wooden sticks. A musician accompanies the singer on the “dan day”, a long-necked lute with three silk strings and 10 frets. There is also a drummer or “trong chau”. The drummer shows his approval of the singer or the songs depending on how he hits the drum. If he likes a song, he might hit the side of the drum twice. The “dan day” player must follow the rhythm of the “phach”. His instrument, the “dan day”, is only used in Ca Tru and is now made almost exclusively for sale to tourists.
36. Ca Tru was first performed .
A. to serve drinks and snacks to men
B. to entertain male guests on special occasions
C. in a relaxed environment without any drink
D. when “Hat A Dao” and “Hat Noi” disappeared
37. Ca Tru developed and became very popular in the society when .
A. it was only performed in royal courts and palaces
B. it took the name Ca Tru from Chinese and became a favourite hobby of aristocrats and scholars
C. its performances were mostly for men
D. it was performed in communal houses, inns, and private homes
38. The “tally card” in the meaning of Ca Tru helped .
A. the singer to be paid after the performance
B. the men to purchase bamboo tally cards
C. the singers to show appreciation for the performance
D. each singer to receive the number of cards given
39. The singer plays the essential role because .
A. she accompanies the other musicians with the “phach”, an instrument made of wood or bamboo
B. she makes the drummer shows his approval of the singer or the songs by hitting the side of the drum twice
C. the drummer only shows his approval or disapproval to the song and the “dan day“ player must follow the rhythm of the drummer
D. the “dan day” player must follow the rhythm of the “phach”, and the drummer only shows his approval or disapproval of the singer or the songs
40. All of the following are true about Ca Tru EXCEPT that .
A. it flourished in the 15th century in northern Vietnam
B. the “dan day” is now only used as a souvenir for tourists
C. the meaning of Ca Tru partly originated from Chinese Vietnamese
D. Ca Tru requires at least three performers
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 17
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 17
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (0.5pt)
1. A. forest B. honest C. strongest D. protest
2. A. investigate B. participate C. immediate D. communicate
II. Choose the word that has the stress pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5pt)
3. A. listener B. contestant C. instrument D. audience
4. A. trumpet B. spirit C. crazy D. Release
III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the sentences below. (4pt)
5. Everyone feels enthusiastic during his
A. performance B. performer C. performed D. perform
6. I’m sure you’ll have no ……………. the exam.
A. difficulty to pass B. difficulties to pass
C. difficulty passing D. difficulties passing
7. 1 ……………. an interview for a scholarship tomorrow morning.
A. will have B. am going to have C. will be having D. will have had
8. This figure graduated ……………. a very famous music school and devoted his life to arts.
A. on B. from C. of D. into
9. Peter …………….. his exam because he hasn’t done any work for it.
A. doesn’t pass B. isn’t passing C. won’t pass D. didn’t pass
10. A healthy ……………. between work and play ensures that everyone has a chance to enjoy their lives.
A. equality B. balance C. share D. control
11. “How was the game show last night?” – ” ……………. “
A. Just talking about it. B. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology. C. I think it wasn’t a good game. D. It showed at 8 o’clock.
12. The song was specially ……………. for the wedding.
A. created B. compiled C. composed D. invented
13. He is a talented composer, ……………. he has received many national prizes.
A. or B. and C. but D. nor
14. He promised faithfully ……………. me every week.
A. to talk B. to call C. calling D. ringing
15. The film was nominated ……………. an Academy Award.
A. for B. in C. about D. With
16. ……………. by your father?
A. Did that book written B. Was that book written
C. Did that book write D. Was that book writing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
17. There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation movement.
A. economic B. natural C. important D. controlled
18. Are there any alternatives that might provide better options for gay people?
A. votes B. judgements C. choices D. decisions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. Apart from being used as an ingredient in cooking, turmeric also promotes many health benefits.
A. contributes to B. weakens C. discourages D. Stimulates
20. I have been fortunate enough to visit many parts of the world as a lecturer.
A. unlucky B. lucky C. unclear D. clear
IV. Read the following passage and circle the best answer for each question. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D. (1.5pt)
Many people worry about the effects of television on family life in the United States. In the average home, the TV is on more than six hours a day. But do people always keep their mind on the programs? And do people who watch TV really spend less time on other free – time activities?
A study by some New York researchers found out that watching TV is the most popular free-time activity in the United States. More than 70% of Americans say that they watch TV every day, or almost every day. The second most popular activity is reading the newspaper. Listening to music at home is third. Talking on the phone to friends and relatives is fourth. Exercising or jogging is fifth.
Surprisingly, television does not seem to take time away from free-time activities at home. Six out of ten people said that when the TV is on, they seldom pay attention to it. During a typical television program, people may eat dinner, do housework, read a newspaper or magazine, or talk or read to their children. The TV becomes “background music.”
The researchers learned that in some ways Americans are very traditional. Teenagers and single people may be interested in activities and excitement outside the home. However, eight out of ten Americans like to spend their free time at home with family members and friends.
(Adapted from ‘Reading Explorations’)
21. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The bad effects of TV on American family life
B. The fact that Americans are very traditional
C. Americans’ television viewing habits
D. How Americans spend their spare time
22. According to the research, which is the most popular leisure activity in America?
A. Listening to music
B. Watching TV
C. Going out with friends
D. Doing housework
23. What does the word it in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Family activity
B. Free time activity
C. Television
D. TV viewer
Fill each blank with NO MORE THAN FOUR words from the text.
24. ………………………………………………………………….ranks as the second most favorite pastime in the US!
25. While watching TV, people rarely ………………………………………………………….to it because they are also doing something else.
26. Four-fifths of Americans like to enjoy their free time at home with their …………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..
V. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the given words. Do not change the form of the word in brackets. (2 pt)
An example (0) has been done for you.
0. Daniel started Italian classes six months ago. (FOR)
→ Daniel has had Italian classes for six months.
27. The acupuncturist will ask the patient to lie down. (ASKED)
→ The patient_______________________________________________________ .
28. They are still working on the group assignment for their English class. (FINISHED)
→ They_______________________________________________________ .
29. Listening to music is a great way to relax. I always prepare a long list of song on my mobile phone to listen everywhere. (SO)
→_______________________________________________________ .
30. Winning the football pools meant we could buy a new car. (ENABLED)
→_______________________________________________________ .
VI. Rearrange the words / phrases to make meaningful sentences:(1.5pt)
31. on/managed / you/finish / assignment/time/have/to/you?
→_______________________________________________________ .
32. to / ailments / Vietnamese health beliefs / an / according/by/ are/ yin and yang/ caused / imbalance of
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 18
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 18
Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others.
Question 1: A. meaningful B. finance C. society D. advice
Question 2: A. breadwinner B. heavy C. break D. instead
Question 3: A. culture B. number C. suffer D. support
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others words.
|
Question 4. |
A. politics |
B. deposit |
C. conception |
D. occasion |
|
Question 5. |
A. prepare |
B. repeat |
C. purpose |
D. police |
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A lot of fans gathered at their idol’s home to see her after the contest.
A. contestant B. competitors C. judges D. devotees
Question 7. Her exceptional ability is known widely as she has won a lot of prizes in many different contests.
A. talent B. passion C. admiration D. appearance
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated C. soak
Question 9. My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly which 4 comics she was going to buy.
A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Choose the word or phrase A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence below.
Question 10: The Jet engine has had …………………. on life since the twentieth century
|
A. a great impact |
B. an important affacts |
C.an important part |
D.great significance |
Question 11: If your camera is faulty, you should return it to the ……………………….
|
A. creator |
B. manufacturer |
C. inventor |
D. builder |
Question 12: This organization is not intended to make a profit but to make money for the conservation of ocean mammals. We are a ……………. organization .
A. not- profit B. no-profit C. non-profited D. non-profit
Question 13: “It is very kind of you to give us a lift.” – “Don’t mention it ……………….. “
D.Yes, I was B. It was my pleasure C. Only pleasure A. It is my pleasure
Question 14: I really wanted to take part in this contest, _______ my parents allowed me to.
A. and B. or C. so D. but
Question 15: Last night my favorite program________________ by a special news bulletin.
A. interrupted B. was interrupted C. were interrupted D. is interrupted
Question 16: ………………. the technological revolution is opening up a whole new world, many people are worried by it.
|
A. However |
B. Despite that |
C. because |
D. Although |
Question 17: Lida has lost her passport again. It’s a second time this ……………………..
|
A. has happened |
B.happens |
C. happened |
D. has been happening |
Question 18: Nelson Mandela became ______________in politics and was forced to leave his first university.
A. interestedly B. interesting C. interestingly D. interested
Question 19- The alarm’s going. It’s making an awful noise. – OK, ……………………. it off.
A. I am switching B. I am going to switch C. I’ll switch
Choose one underlined word or phrase A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.
Question 20: While they were having dinner, someone was knocking at the door.
A B C D
Question 21: Lying on the beach is much more pleasant than to sit in the office.
A B C D
Question 22: . Human infants born with about 270 bones, some of which fuse together as their body develops.
A B C D
Read the text and choose the correct answer – A, B, C, or D.
Did you know that on average we forget about 80% of the medical information a doctor might give us? This fascinating information came to light as a result of a study carried out by Utrecht University. What is even more interesting is that almost half of what we think we remember is wrong.
Why do you think this is? Well, it’s not as complicated as you may think. You see, going to the doctor fills most people with anxiety and when we are really nervous and stressed we are more likely to focus on the diagnosis rather than the treatment. Therefore, we know what is wrong with us but have no idea what to do about it.
Here are some good tips to keep in mind when seeing a doctor. Always write down any important information. What would be even better is, if your doctor agreed, to record your consultation. This way, you can replay the advice at home, where you are more likely to absorb it. If you believe the situation is serious or you’re really worried, seek the help of a family member. Just ask them to accompany you to listen in. This way you can be absolutely sure about what the doctor has told you and avoid falling into the same trap that most people do.
Question 23. According to the passage, the information doctors give us ____.
A. is about 50% wrong B. is only 80% correct
C. is mostly forgotten D. is usually not enough
Question 24. The word “complicated” in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____.
A. good B. quick C. short D. simple
Question 25. The author says that when people consult a doctor, ____.
A. they always believe that their situation is serious
B. they are interested in knowing what they should do
C. they only want to know what is wrong with them
D. they usually have a family member with them
Question 26. The word “absorb” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. digest B. inhale C. swallow D. take in
Question 27. The author suggests recording the consultant in order to ____.
A. play it to your family members to get their opinions
B. refer to it later to better understand your condition
C. replay it to write down any important information
D. use it as evidence against your doctor if necessary
Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
One good reason for people to learn a foreign language is work. If your work involves regular contact with (28) ________ of foreign languages, being able to talk to them in their own languages will help you to communicate with them. It may also help you to make sales and to negotiate and secure contracts. Knowledge of foreign language may also increase your chances of (29) ________ a new job, getting a promotion or a transfer overseas, or of going on foreign business trips.
Many English-speaking business people don’t bother to learn other languages because they believe (30) ________ most of the people they do business with in foreign countries can speak English, and if they don’t speak English, interpreters can help. The (31) ________ of foreign language knowledge puts the English speakers at a disadvantage. In any socialising after the meetings, the locals will probably (32) ________ more comfortable when using their own language rather than English.
Question 28. A. talkers B. sayers C. tellers D. speakers
Question 29. A. looking B. finding C. applying D. offering
Question 30. A. what B. when C. that D. how
Question 31. A. use B. study C. fluency D. lack
Question 32. A. know B. feel C. behave D. come
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original one.
Question 33: He spends 30 minutes walking in the park with his wife every morning.
à It ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 34: It’s nearly 20 years since my father saw his brother
à My father…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Make the meaningful sentence, using the given words below.
Question 35: While/ Mary /listen/music, / mother /phone her.
à…………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 36: Many parents / not let / children / make / decision / the future career.
à…………………………………………………………………………………
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 19
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 19
I. Circle A, B, C, or D that best completes each sentence or as directed. (3pts)
1. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
|
A. push |
B. butcher |
C. pull |
D. flute |
2. Choose the word which has the pronounced part pronounced differently from the rest.
|
A. doctor |
B. more |
C. boss |
D. job |
3. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
|
A. original |
B. eventually |
C. photography |
D. glorious |
4. Tom: “________” – Tony: “For three years.”
|
A. How often did you live here? |
C. How long have you lived here? |
|
B. How many years you lived here? |
D. How far did you live here? |
5. I have been fascinated by ________ since I was a little boy.
|
A. photograph |
B. photo |
C. photographer |
D. photography |
6. Our neighbours are very _________ on camping holidays.
|
A. eager |
B. enthusiastic |
C. interested |
D. keen |
7. Get a sofa in the living room? You’ll be lucky – there isn’t enough room to ________ in there.
|
A. lead a dog’s life |
B. eat like a bird |
C. swing a cat |
D. get on a high horse |
8. Marie Curie __________ the dream of a scientific career which was impossible for a woman at that time.
|
A. harboured |
B. obtained |
C. landed |
D. sailed |
9. UNICEF __________ supports and funds for the most disadvantages children all over the world.
|
A. offers |
B. provides |
C. assists |
D. presents |
10. Ambulances arrived at the scene of the accident and took _________ to hospital.
|
A. the injured |
B. the blind |
C. the sick |
D. the unemployed |
11. I can’t stand travel __________ So, I hate travelling by car.
|
A. illness |
B. spare |
C. disease |
D. sickness |
12. Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.
The argument, although understandable, was not very convincing.
|
A. persuasive |
B. reliable |
C. realistic |
D. clear |
II. Supply correct verb tense and form. (1.5pts)
1. Mr. Pike ___________________ (teach) English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
2. Henry __________________ (live) in New York for ten years before he _______________ (move) to Chicago last month.
3. It was at the airport when he realised that he ___________________ (leave) his passport at home.
4. Who _________________ (lead) the conference tomorrow?
5. I can’t get used _____________________ (get) up so early. I’m tired all the time.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer. (1.25pts)
Most people think that the older you get, the harder it is to learn a new language. That is, they believe that children learn more easily and efficiently than adults. Thus, at some point in our lives, maybe around age 12 or 13, we lose the ability to learn languages well. Is this idea a fact or myth?
Is it true that children learn a foreign language more efficiently than adults? On the contrary, research studies suggest that the opposite may be true. One report, on 2,000 Danish children studying Swedish, concluded that the teenagers learned more, in less time, than the younger children. Another report, on Americans learning Russian, showed a direct improvement of ability over the age range tested; that is, the ability to learn increased as the age increased, from childhood to adulthood.
There are several possible explanations for these findings. For one thing, adults know more about the world and therefore are able to understand meanings more easily than children. Moreover, adults can use logical thinking to help themselves see patterns in the language. Finally, adults have more self-discipline (self-control) than children.
All in all, it seems that the common idea that children are better language learners than adults may not be a fact, but a myth.
1. The main idea of the passage is ____________.
|
A. teenagers are more difficult to teach |
|
B. Danish teenagers can learn Swedish faster than younger children |
|
C. adults are more logical than children |
|
D. the ability to learn languages increases with age |
2. If most people’s idea of learning languages is true, people may lose ability to learn languages well ______.
|
A. at an early age |
B. when they reach their twenties |
|
C. at an old age |
D. after they become young men |
3. According to the passage, teenagers can learn a foreign language ___________ than younger children.
|
A. harder |
B. more efficiently |
C. more slowly |
D. more carefully |
4. The reason why adults understand meanings more easily than children is that _______________.
|
A. adults have more self-discipline |
|
B. adults like to play more than children |
|
C. adults have more knowledge than children |
|
D. adults accept new things more easily than children |
5. Which of the following possible explanations for older student’s better achievement is NOT mentioned in the above passage?
|
A. Adults know more about the world |
B. Adults can use logical thinking |
|
C. Adults have more self-discipline |
D. Adults can read better |
IV. Fill in the blank with one suitable word. (1.25pts)
|
himself |
consists |
as |
teacher |
|
modifying |
organization |
leading |
for |
Louis Braille was born in 1809 in Coupvray. He was a French (1) _______ of the blind. He (2) ______ was blind from the age of three, and in 1818 he went to the National Institue for the Young Blind in Paris. Soon showing marked ability in both science and music, he became famous in Paris (3) ________ an organist and violoncenllist. In 1826 Braille began teaching the blind in the institue. Braille is known for his idea of (4) _________ the Barbier “point writing” system, used for coded army messages, to enable the blind to read. Point writing (5) __________ of embossed dots and dashes on cardboard; the Braille system derived from it is used successfully today, in slightly modified form, and in many countries.
V. Do as directed. (2.0pts)
1. Tom was seriously advised by his teacher, but he insisted in disturbing the class. (Sentence combination, using “although”)
® __________________________________________________________________
2. We no longer live in the countryside now. (Complete the sentence)
® We used __________________________________________________________________
3. Mike / offer / opportunity / study abroad / yesterday. (Sentence building)
® __________________________________________________________________
4. Jill isn’t on the phone. It is difficult to contact her. (Rewrite, using “which” as a connector)
® Jill ________________________________________________________________
VII. Writing. (1.0pt)
In about 70 words, write a passage about the advantages of computers in your study.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
————————————————–
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 tải nhiều nhất – Đề 20
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề 20
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others words.
Question 1:
A. psychologist B. duty C. laundry D. grocery
Question 2: A. experience B. dedicated C. enthusiast D. result
Question 3: A. society B. musician C. introduce D. license
Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others
|
Question 4. |
A. provide |
B. product |
C. promote |
D. profess |
|
Question 5. |
A. different |
B. regular |
C. achieving |
D. property |
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A bank has promised a donation of $24 million toward the disaster fund.
A. connection B. addition C. contribution D. provision
Question 7. Those volunteers are so devoted that not only the children but also their parents love them very much.
A. dedicated B. interested C. concerned D. excited
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8. Mr. Brown is a very generous old man. He has given most of his wealth to a charity organization.
A. hospitable B. honest C. kind D. mean
Question 9. In the first two decades of its existence, the cinema developed rapidly.
A. leisurely B. slowly C. weakly D. shortly
Choose the word or phrase A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence below.
Question 10: You can’t use the washing machine today. It’s ………………..
|
A. out of work |
B. out of order |
C. breaking down |
D. wrong |
Question 11: We really admire him. He is a ………… writer.
A. distinguish B. distinguishing C. distinctive D. distinguished
Question 12: He is never willing to listen to the views of others. He is a ………… person.
A. negative B. positive C. pessimist D. narrow-minded
Question 13: The optic fiber was a major ………………. in the field of telecommunication.
|
A. breakdown |
B. revolution |
C. breakthrough |
D. technique |
Question 14: Have a nice weekend ! – …………………………….
|
A. Ok. Yes, please |
B. Thank you. The same to you |
C. It’s not very long now |
D. No, thanks |
Question 15: She left a message ………………….. I could know where to find her
|
A. so that |
B. so as to |
C. for |
D. in order |
Question 16: Where’s the book I gave you ? – What ……………….. with it ?
|
A. have you been doing |
B. have you done |
C. are you doing |
D. did you do |
Question 17: Due to having a lot of things …………….. last night, we missed …………… the film.
|
A. for doing / to see |
B. done / saw |
C. to do / seeing |
D. doing / see |
Question 18:“Would you like to stay the night?” “ __________________”
A. Are you sure? B. Oh, that’s very kind of you. C. I don’t know. D. It’s far from here.
Question 19: I didn’t find the situation funny. It wasn’t ……………………. .
|
|
A. |
amuse |
B. |
amusing |
C. |
amused |
D. |
to amuse |
Choose one underlined word or phrase A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.
Question 20: Alternative therapies often dismiss by orthodox medicine because they are
A B
sometimes administered by people with no formal medical training.
C D
Question 21: Nick didn’t understand the lesson because he couldn’t do the homework last night.
A B C D
Question 22: If you go on letting your dog to chase cars, he will end by being run over
A B C D
Read the text and choose the correct answer – A, B, C, or D.
‘The best age to start learning the violin is between three and six,’ says Margaret Porter, a violinist and music teacher. ‘It’s the time when you are learning about the world.’ Margaret, who lives in London, prefers to take pupils at three and four, although she has made lots of exceptions for keen five-year olds. When she started teaching the violin in 1972, her first class consisted of her children’s five-year-old school friends.
Magaret’s pupils have group lessons. Each group has about a dozen pupils and each lesson lasts an hour, once a fornight. In addition, each pupil has one individual lesson a week with her. Parents also have to attend the classes. It is important that the parents take an active interest in the lessons.
From the earliest lessons pupils learn to play by ear. They do not even try to read music until they have been playing for several years, and for a long time there is a big difference between their playing and reading of music. Margaret says that her method is not supposed to produce great violinists, and always suggests that pupils who perform particularly well should leave and study the violin using more traditional methods.
Question 23.When did Margaret Porter start teaching the violin?
|
A. at the age of 36 |
B. in 1972 |
C. in 1927 |
D. at the age of 34 |
Question 24: What is the writer trying to do in the text?
|
A. explain why Margaret likes teaching the violin |
B. describe a different way of learning the violin |
|
C. give advice on how to find a music teacher |
D. explain why Margaret has a lot of pupils |
Question 25: What opinion does Margaret have about her best pupils?
|
A. They ought to find another teacher. |
B. They will become great violinists using her method. |
|
C. They could try harder. |
D. They take several years to learn to read music. |
Question 26: Magaret’s first pupils were…………………
|
A. her children |
B. three-and four-year-olds |
C. her own friends |
D. her children’s friends. |
Question 27. Why should someone read the text ?
|
A. to discover how Margaret learnt the violin |
B. to learn why it is important to read music |
|
C. to find out about Margaret’s teaching method |
D. to learn why children should play violin. |
Choose the correct option A, B, C, or D for each gap
Most people agree that computers are the most important (28)______of the 20th century. The first business computers (29)______introduced just about fifty years ago, and now they are being used in a wide variety of fields, from banking to space travel. However, until just a few years ago, computers were very large, expensive machines (30)______by large corporations and governments. Although everyone knew that computers existed, very few people had ever seen one and even fewer had used one. Then in the 1970s the silicon chip was invented. Because this electronic device could (31)______a large amount of information in a very small space, computers could be much smaller and less expensive than the huge mainframe computers used by corporations. Some computer manufacturers believed that people might lie to have computers in (32)______homes, offices, and schools, so the personal computers was born.
Question 28 A. inventory B. invention C. invent D. inventive
Question 29 A. have been B. had been C. were D. are
Question 30. A. belonged B. owned C. had D. was
Question 31 A. store B. hide C. stock D. provide
Question 32 A. his B. our C. its D. their
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original one.
Question 33: It took her a long time to get over the death of her grandmother.
à She ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 34: The last time I went swimming was when we were in Spain.
à I haven’t………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Make the meaningful sentence, using the given words below.
Question 35: Volunteering/ be/ great way/ discover/ new passions/ or/ interests/ future career.
à…………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 36: The teacher /not /allow/ us/ use /dictionary /during /test.
à…………………………………………………………………………………