Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 1
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa kì 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 1)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1) A. fat B. any C. gas D. hat
2) A. glad B. geography C. glass D. give
3) A. hour B. happy C. husband D. hold
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4) A. candle B. finish C. family D. anniversary
5) A. relation B. together C. successful D. celebrate
6) A. golden B. adult C. perhaps D. future
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
7) A date that is an exact number of years after the date of an important event is a(n) ………..
A. birthday B. celebration C. wedding D. anniversary
8) Dinner will be a cold ………………………, not a sit-down meal.
A. party B. meal C. dish D. buffet
9) He doesn’t know much about the subject, but he is ………………….. .
A. joyful B. enthusiastic C. reserved D. calm
10) Steve thought his ……………………… with Helen was changing.
A. relate B. relative C. relation D. relationship
11) He is ………………………. for his elderly parents.
A. paying attention B. looking C. caring D. taking care
12) He is smartly …………………… when he comes to an interview.
A. dressed B. put on C. worn D. undressed
13) John had agreed ……………………. me in his office.
A. to meet B. meeting C. to be met D. being met
14) it’s important for the figures ……………………. regularly.
A. to update B. updating C. to be updated D. being updated
15) It is no good ………………………. sorry for yourself.
A. to feel B. feeling C. feel D. felt
16) The man wanted to avoid …………………. on security cameras.
A. to see B. seeing C. to be seen D. being seen
17) Peter …………………… to go in for the exam.
A. avoided B. let C. advised D. decided
18) I tried ……………………… the bus, but I missed it.
A. to catch B. catching C. to be caught D. being caught
19) The plants want ……………………… daily.
A. to water B. watering C. to be watered D. being water
20) Will you remind me ……………….. this letter at the post office?
A. to post B. posting C. to be posted D. being posted
21) The goods ought ………………….. two weeks ago.
A. to deliver B. delivering
C. to be delivered D. being delivered
22) I have expected ……………………. the secret of happiness.
A. to tell B. telling C. to be told D. being told
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
23) The thief asked her handing over her money.
A B C D
24) He was terribly excited to ask to play for Manchester.
A B C D
25) They chose no to be attended the meeting.
A B C D
26) He could not decide whether to get a job or studying.
A B C D
27) I dislike being talk about everywhere.
A B C D
Read the passage and choose one correct answer for each question.
PREPARING A DINNER PARTY
Giving a dinner party is a wonderful way of entertain people. You can also make new friends and give others the chance to get to know each other better.
It needs planning, though. First, make a guest list, with different kinds of people and a mixture of women and men. Don’t invite couples because they aren’t so much fun.
When you know who can come, find out what they like to eat and drink. Note down any who are vegetarians, or who can’t eat or drink certain things for religious seasons.
Then plan their menu. Include a first course, a choice of main courses and a dessert, plus lots of people’s favourite drinks.
The next thing to do is the shopping. Make sure buy more than enough of everything, and that someone can help you carry it!
On the day, start cooking early. Give people appetizers like Greek mezze or Spanish tapas, so they don’t get hungry if they have to wait. Serve the delicious meal, sit down with your guests and have a good time – you’ve earned it!
28) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the purpose of giving a dinner party?
A. to entertain people.
B. to make new friends.
C. to get people to know more about their host and hostess.
D. to help people to know each other better.
29) when giving a dinner party, you should NOT invite …………………… .
A. husbands and wives. B. those who are vegetarians.
C. both women and men. D. those who can’t eat or drink certain things.
30) The menu should include these EXCEPT ……………………..
A. a first course B. a supper C. a dessert D. main courses
31) According to the passage, starters should be served ………………………
A. because the guests want to have a good time together
B. because the guests like eating them
C. because the guests want to eat them while having to wait
D. because the guests may be hungry while having to wait
32) What should you do while the guests are having their evening meal?
A. Stand beside the guests without doing anything.
B. Sit down with the guests and have a good time.
C. Sit down with the guests to show your politeness.
D. Only serve the guests with the food.
Complete a letter of complaint from the words given.
33) I/ have/ birthday party/ house/ 8 p.m/ November 19.
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
34) Most/ relatives/ friends/ invited/ party.
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
35) There/ be/ drinks/ special foods/ I/ cook.
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Đáp án
|
1B |
2B |
3A |
4D |
5D |
6D |
7D |
8D |
|
9B |
10D |
11C |
12A |
13A |
14C |
15B |
16D |
|
17D |
18A |
19C |
20A |
21C |
22C |
23C |
24C |
|
25C |
26D |
27B |
28C |
29A |
30B |
31D |
32B |
33. I am having a birthday party at my house at 8 p.m on November 19.
34. Most of my relatives and friends are invited to the party.
35. There will be lots of drinks and special foods I am going to cook (am cooking).
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 2
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa kì 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 2)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1) A. who B. wheel C. whether D. whale
2) A. summer B. educate C. club D. public
3) A. handicapped B. visited C. decided D. wanted
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4) A. volunteer B. nation C. college D. hospital
5) A. orphanage B. participate C. vacation D. remote
6) A. comfort B. area C. happiness D. believe
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence
7) To do the work for a humane society is ……………………. .
A. friendly B. mutual C. voluntary D. thoughtless
8) Some high school students take part in helping the handicapped.
A. play a role of B. take a place of C. participate D. are a part of
9) There is a special fund for the severely ………………….. .
A. orphan B. volunteer C. aged D. handicapped
10) The ……………… of this society in to provide community education for street children.
A. mission B. work C. job D. duty
11) The work of the charity is funded by voluntary ……………………. .
A. action B. activity C. donation D. organization
12) We should take care of war invalids and family of martyrs.
A. look after B. look into C. look for D. look at
13) Shy people often find it difficult to …………………… group discussions.
A. take place in B. take part in C. get on with D. get in
14) I am ………………. to come to the meeting on Monday evening, please apologise for my absence.
A. capable B. excused C. unable D. disliked
15) ………………….. it several times, he didn’t want to read it once again.
A. Reading B. To read C. To have read D. Having read
16) ……………………. that he was poor, I offered to pay his fare.
A. Knowing B. Known C. Knew D. Having knew
17) ………………….. photographs of the place, I had no desire to go there.
A. Seeing B. Seen C. Saw D. Having seen
18) I hate ………………….. a child …………………… .
A. see/ crying B. see/ cry C. seeing/ to cry D. seeing/ cry
19) I notice the lorry …………………… down the hill.
A. to come B. came C. coming D. having come
20) I observed a blue car …………………. very fast towards the motorway.
A. having driven B. driven C. driving D. to drive
21) They left the restaurant, ……………………. two hours over lunch.
A. spending B. spent C. after spend D. having spent
22) The police accused him of……………… fire to the building but he denied ……………. in the area on the night of the fire.
A. setting/ being B. setting/ having been
C. set/ be D. having set/ having been
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
23) He says that speak a foreign language always makes him nervous.
A B C D
24) Each nation has many people who voluntary take care of others.
A B C D
25) We’re looking forward to see you again.
A B C D
26) I’d like buying some earrings like yours.
A B C D
27) She smelt something burning and saw smoke rise.
A B C D
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each blank.
VOLUNTEERS ABROAD
More and more young people are … (36) … voluntary work abroad. The wild variety of jobs and destinations available is making it an increasingly attractive option for those who have just left school and have a year free before university. Many choose to spend these twelve months working in poor countries. There they will earn little … (37) … no money. But they will be doing something useful – and enjoying the experience.
The work may … (38) … of helping the local communities, for example by helping to build new road or provide water supplies to isolated rural villages. Other projects may concentrate more on conservation or environmental protection. … (39) … kind of job it is, it is certain to be … (40) … and worthwhile, and an experience that will never be forgotten.
28) A. doing B. making C. taking D. getting
29) A. with B. but C. or D. and
30) A. consist B. include C. contain D. involve
31) A. Any B. What C. However D. Whatever
32) A. challenging B. dangerous C. difficult D. attracted
Arrange these words or groups of words in the correct order.
33) story/ I/ your/ again/ no/ to/ have/ hearing/ objection
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
34) people/ caring/ life/ entire/ spends/ other/ She/ her/ for
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
35) finds/ difficult/ talking/ very/ about/ his/ He/ problems/
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Đáp án
|
1A |
2B |
3A |
4A |
5A |
6D |
7C |
8C |
|
9D |
10A |
11C |
12A |
13B |
14C |
15D |
16A |
|
17D |
18D |
19C |
20C |
21D |
22B |
23B |
24C |
|
25C |
26B |
27D |
28A |
29C |
30A |
31D |
32A |
33. I have no objection to hearing your story again.
34. She spends her entire fife caring for other people.
35. He finds talking about his problems very difficult.
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 3
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa kì 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 3)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1) A. pretty B. pretend C. pretext D. prepare
2) A. teachers B. arrives C. textbooks D. combs
3) A. corn B. cup C. can D. city
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4) A. illiteracy B. province C. primary D. country
5) A. eradicate B. minority C. campaign D. ethnic
6) A. highland B. northern C. village D. effective
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
7) The ……………………… of masses is an essential educational way of our party and people.
A. generalization B. role C. duty D. universalization
8) The loving-peace people have been working for the ……………………. of World Peace.
A. access B. glory C. success D. promotion
9) There is a ……………………. to raise money for the needy.
A. campaign B. mobilization C. movement D. A and B
10) A group of people from a particular or of a particular race living in a country where the main group is of different culture or race is called………..
A. mountaineers B. ethnic minority
C. nations D. undeveloped people
11) The new tax policy comes into effect next month.
A. comes into use B. begins to apply C. starts D. A and B
12) A situation in which something is happening or a lot of things are being done is a(n) ………………
A. work B. action C. activity D. happening
13) You’re ……… your time trying to persuade him; he’ll never help you.
A. wasting B. spending C. losing D. missing
14) The most important thing we should do now is to tackle the problem of widespread ……………………. .
A. illiterate B. illiteracy C. literate D. literacy
15) Someone told us ……………………… sit on the stairs.
A. don’t B. not C. not to D. to not
16) “Don’t forget to ring me”
A. I advised David to ring me B. I reminded David to ring me
C. I offered to be rung D. You promised to ring me
17) The doctor advised him ……………………. and to take up some sport.
A. stop smoke B. stop smoking
C. to stop smoking D. to stop to smoke
18) I have told him never ……….. to buy some potatoes on the way home.
A. come B. comes C. came D. to come
19) Professional people expect …………….. when it is necessary to cancel an appointment.
A. you to call them B. that you would call them
C. you calling them D. that you are calling them
20) ………………… me to phone them before I go out.
A. Remind B. Remember C. Mention D. Make
21) The conductor asked ……………………. in the bus.
A. them to please not to smoke B. that they should not smoke
C. them not to smoke D. them not to smoke
22) He told us to wait him at the bus stop …………………….. .
A. tomorrow B. next Sunday C. yesterday D. the previous day
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
23) David asked me telling him the time.
A B C D
24) I warned them not climb the mountain in such bad weather.
A B C D
25) They voluntarily spent their vacations to teach illiterate people to read and write.
A B C D
26) The policeman ordered the suspect to not remove his hands from the car.
A B C D
27) The teacher told us to keep quietly during the lesson.
A B C D
Write the following sentences in Reported Speech.
28) “You had better go to the doctor”.
=> He urged me……………………………………………………………………………………
29) “You’ve got to lend me some money!”
=> He begged me…………………………………………………………………………………
30) “Give me your homework.”
=> The teacher told us…………………………………………………………………………..
31) “Please, don’t smoke in my car.”
=> He asked us……………………………………………………………………………………..
32) “I’ll buy you an ice-cream.”
=> My Dad promised…………………………………………………………………………….
33) “Would you like to have a drink with me?”
=> He invited me………………………………………………………………………………….
34) “You should give up smoking.”
=> The doctor advised me…………………………………………………………………….
35) “Don’t shoot.”
=> The General ordered us…………………………………………………………………..
Đáp án
|
1A |
2C |
3D |
4A |
5D |
6D |
7D |
|
8D |
9D |
10B |
11D |
12C |
13B |
14B |
|
15C |
16B |
17C |
18D |
19A |
20A |
21C |
|
22D |
23B |
24B |
25B |
26B |
27C |
x |
28) He urged me to go the doctor.
29) He begged me to lend him some money.
30) The teacher told us to give him our homework.
31) He asked us not to smoke in his car.
32) My Dad promised to buy me an ice-cream.
33) He invited me to have a drink with him.
34) The doctor advised me to give up smoking.
35) The General ordered us not to shoot.
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 4
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa kì 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 4)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1) A. earning B. learning C. searching D. clearing
2) A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
3) A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4) A. competition B. annual C. final D. stimulate
5) A. performance B. celebration C. remember D. announce
6) A. apologize B. difficulty C. enjoyment D. remember
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
7) A situation in which people or organizations compete with each other to find out who is the best at something.
A. participation B. competition C. activity D. performance
8) A person who decides who has won a competition is called a(n)……..
A. referee B. judge C. investigator D. witness
9) To make something develop or become more active.
A. to encourage B. to enhance C. to stimulate D. to strike
10) To agree to give someone money for a charity if that person competes a special activity.
A. organize B. support C. sponsor D. encourage
11) A person who has been chosen to speak or vote for someone else on behalf of a group.
A. contestant B. competitor C. examinee D. representative
12) The greatest ………………………. of all is the World peace.
A. present B. gift C. prize D. award
13) A sports competition involving a number of teams or players who take part in different games.
A. match B. tournament C. game D. play
14) They had a really good chance of winning the national ………………….
A. compete B. competition C. competitor D. competitive
15) Jack admitted ………………….. the money.
A. steal B. to steal C. stealing D. stolen
16) Thank you very much …………………… lending me your bike.
A. about B. in C. for D. of
17) Don’t ……………………. him to arrive early. He’s always late.
A. think B. judge C. hope D. expect
18) I wouldn’t ………………… of going to the party I hadn’t been invited to.
A. dream B. intend C. depend D. rely
19) The instructor warned the students ………… sailing alone on the lake.
A. on B. for C. of D. against
20) The manager ………………….. the men to turn to work immediately.
A. insisted B. suggested C. demanded D. ordered
21) Her mother prevented her ………………… going out tonight.
A. against B. from C. about D. at
22) I apologized …………………… the book at home.
A. for leaving B. to leaving C. leaving D. to leave
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
23) I’d like to thank your brother for your help.
A B C D
24) Mrs. Allen was concerned about my have to drive so far every day.
A B C D
25) You can congratulate yourself about having done an excellent job.
A B C D
26) Peter apologized for break the vase.
A B C D
27) He insisted on seeing the manager tomorrow.
A B C D
Write the following sentences in Reported Speech.
28) “It was really kind of you to help me.” Mary said to you.
=> Mary thanked me…………………………………………………………………………….
29) “I’ll drive you to the airport.” John said to Linda..
=> John insisted……………………………………………………………………………………
30) “You have passed the final exams. Congratulations!” Jim said to you
=> Jim congratulated me……………………………………………………………………….
31) “It was nice of you to invite me to the dinner. Thank you”, Miss White said to Peter.
=> Miss White thanked………………………………………………………………………….
32) “Don’t play with the matches!” I said to Jack.
=> I warned………………………………………………………………………………………….
33) “I’m sorry I didn’t phone you earlier”, Margaret said to you.
=> Margaret apologized………………………………………………………………………..
34) “I have always wanted to be a pilot”, Paul said to you.
=> Paul has always dreamed of……………………………………………………………..
35) “You didn’t do what I said”, the mother said to her son.
=> The mother accused………………………………………………………………………….
Đáp án
|
1D |
2C |
3A |
4A |
5B |
6B |
7B |
8B |
9C |
|
10C |
11D |
12D |
13B |
14B |
15C |
16C |
17D |
18A |
|
19D |
20D |
21B |
22A |
23D |
24B |
25C |
26C |
27D |
28) Mary thanked me for helping her.
29) John insisted on driving her to the airport.
30) Jim congratulated me on passing the final exams.
31) Miss White thanked Peter for inviting her to the dinner.
32) I warned Jack against playing with matches.
33) Margaret apologized for not phoning me earlier.
34) Paul has always dreamed of being a pilot.
35) The mother accused her son of not doing what she had said.
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 5
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa kì 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 5)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
1) A. probably B. population C. gold D. hospital
2) A. smallest B. best C. longest D. biggest
3) A. mountain B. ground C. blouse D. soup
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4) A. instead B. interesting C. expected D. resources
5) A. figure B. double C. different D. support
6) A. research B. decrease C. available D. government
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
7) The teaching of history shouldn’t be …………………. to date and figures.
A. limiting B. limitation C. limit D. limited
8) We don’t have the……………………. to update our computer software.
A. sources B. resources C. funds D. origins
9) One third of the world’s …………………… consumes two thirds of the world resources.
A. people B. men C. population D. human
10) The practice of controlling the number of children a person has, using various methods of contraception is called ……………………… .
A. family planning B. birth control C. population D. A and B
11) When a person has an infectious disease, he is……….from other people.
A. isolated B. limited C. separated D. confined
12) Since the early 1990s Viet Nam has experienced ………………. growth but the differences between the lives of the rich and the poor have been greater.
A. population B. economic C. educational D. financial
13) A person who has moved from one place to another especially to find work.
A. emigrant B. immigrant C. migrant D. A and C
14) What’s the …………………….. of your country?
A. populate B. population C. populous D. popular
15) If the ball ………. the line, that would have been the end of the game.
A. would cross B. will cross C. had crossed D. crossed
16) If someone knocked a candle over, it …………………. a fire.
A. will start B. started C. would start D. would have started
17) If you ……………………. told us about the bad service, we would have eaten there.
A. hadn’t B. don’t C. didn’t D. wouldn’t have
18) What would Tom do if he …………………………. the truth?
A. would know B. knows C. had known D. knew
19) If I …………………… you were sick. I would have called sooner.
A. knew B. had known C. know D. would have known
20) If there ……………………. a row, I’m going to keep out of it.
A. will be B. is C. were D. had been
21) If I ……………………… you, I’d call and apologise.
A. am B. were C. would be D. was
22) Jack will win the election if he ……………………. harder.
A. will campaign B. would campaign
C. campaigned D. campaigns
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
23) If you were here yesterday, you would have seen Jean.
A B C D
24) We should visit that part of the country if it will be spring.
A B C D
25) If I will make a difficult decision, I always discuss it with my friends.
A B C D
26) We could had done more if we had had more time
A B C D
27) He said that if he has more time, he would come to see us.
A B C D
Put the verbs in parentheses into the correct form.
28) If someone (walk)………………………… in here with a gun, I would be very frightened.
29) I’m sure he (understand) ……………………………… if you explain the situation to her.
30) If she hadn’t walked to the meeting, she (not be)…………………………….. late.
31) He always (complain) ……………………………… if I’m late.
32) If he spoke more clearly, we (understand) …………………………….. him.
33) If the woman (say) ………………. what she wanted, I wouldn’t have put the phone down.
34) If they arrived in time, they (see) …………………………… the ceremony.
35) If you (ask)……………………………… me, I would explain it to you.
Đáp án
|
1C |
2B |
3D |
4B |
5D |
6D |
7D |
8C |
9C |
|
10D |
11A |
12B |
13D |
14B |
15C |
16C |
17A |
18D |
|
19B |
20B |
21B |
22D |
23B |
24D |
25A |
26A |
27B |
28) walked
29) will understand
30) wouldn’t have been
31) will complain
32) would understand
33) had said
34) would see
35) asked
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 6
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 6)
Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. athlete B. capital C. stalk D. talent
Question 2: A. emblem B. member C. regret D. theme
Question 3: A. August B. gerund C. purpose D. suggest
Question 4: A. dream B. mean C. peace D. steady
Question 5: A. consist B. disable C. suggest D. vision
Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: The government’s interference in the strike has been widely criticised.
A. disapproval B. intervention
C. limitation D. postponement
Question 7: The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice – the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.
A. banner B. logo
C. motto D. slogan
Question 8: The scholarship is renewed annually and may be stopped if the students have poor academic records or bad behaviours.
A. every day B. every month
C. every week D. every year
Question 9: In Thailand, it’s against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught, you can be fined up to $2000 Baht.
A evil B. illegal
C. immoral D. wrong
Question 10: The beautiful sights in Sa Pa, Mui Ne and Ha Noi all contribute to the country’s magic charm.
A. beauty B. fame
C. image D. value
Exercise 3. Mark the letter A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: It is no use ____ a girl that she doesn’t need to lose any weight.
A. convince B. convincing
C. to convince D. to convincing
Question 12: I have much homework that I ought ____.
A. do B. to doing
C. doing D. to do
Question 13: She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn’t help ____ at.
A. laugh B. laughing
C. to laugh D. to laughing
Question 14: We are looking forward ____ out at the weekend.
A. go. B. going
C. to go D. to going
Question 15: You should give up ____ your sister.
A. being bullied B. bullied
C. bullying D. to bully
Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 16: “It’s so stuffy in here.” – “____”
A. Do I have to open the window?
B. Must I open the window?
C. Shall I open the window?
D. Would you like to open the window?
Question 17: “Merry Christmas!” – “____”
A. Happy Christmas to you! B. Same for you!
C. The same to you! D. You are the same!
Question 18: “I will pick you up around 7:30. The movie starts at 8:00.” – “____”
A. No, you don’t
B. OK. See you then.
C. I don’t like waiting.
D. Thanks, no big deal.
Question 19: “____ going on a picnic this weekend?” – “That’s great!”
A. How about B. Let’s
C. Why don’t we D. Would you like
Question 20: “Mr Green had an accident. He’s been in hospital for a week.” – “____”
A. How terrific B. Oh, is he?
C. Poor it. D. Poor him.
Exercise 5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Viet Nam from the 5th to 13th December, 2003. Although it was the first time Viet Nam hosted such a big sports event, the Games were a great success. The Games really became a festival that impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, co-operation for peace and development.
Athletes from 11 participating countries competed in 32 sports, and 444 gold medals were won. Some teams such as table tennis, badminton, karate, volleyball, basketball and wrestling were composed of top competitors in the region. Many Games records were close to international levels. Viet Nam won 158 gold medals to finish at the top of the Southeast Asian Games medal standings. Thailand ranked second with 90 golds, and Indonesia was third with only 55 golds. Singapore and Viet Nam were the two nations which had participants who were presented with the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events. The Vietnamese Women’s Football team successfully defended the SEA Games title. Viet Nam and Thailand played in the Men’s Football Final. The Thai Team won the gold medal. In other sports such as karate, athletics, bodybuilding and wushu, the young and energetic Vietnamese athletes performed excellently and won a lot of gold medals.
Viet Nam’s first place finish was not surprising. Firstly, to prepare for the 22nd SEA Games, Viet Nam carried out an intensive programme for its athletes, which included training in facilities, both home and abroad. Secondly, with the strong support of their countrymen, the Vietnamese athletes competed in high spirits. The country’s success has proved that Viet Nam can organise sporting events on an international level. A plan has been proposed for Viet Nam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point in the future.
Question 21: It can be inferred from the passage that ____.
A. Viet Nam can organise sporting events better than other countries
B. Viet Nam had already planned for the next Sea Games in the future
C. Viet Nam prepared its athletes well for the 22nd SEA Games
D. Viet Nam protected its first place in SEA Games competition
Question 22: The word “title” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. power B. label
C. headline D. trophy
Question 23: According to the passage, what is NOT true about the 22nd Southeast Asian Games?
A. There were 11 countries participating in.
B. Many athletes had broken the world records.
C. Indonesia ranked higher than Singapore.
D. Vietnamese Women’s Football team won gold medal.
Question 24: The word “intensive” in paragraph 3 has OPPOSITE meaning to ____.
A. delicate B. flexible
C. sensitive D. vigorous
Question 25: What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To explain the reasons why 22nd Sea Games was organised in Viet Nam.
B. To express the writer’s love and how much he is proud of the country’s success.
C. To introduce top competitors in the region and their ranking in the Games.
D. To show Vietnamese’s ability in organising international sporting events.
Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I said that she should see a doctor.
A. I advised her seeing a doctor.
B. I advised her should see a doctor.
C. I advised her to see a doctor.
D. I advised to see a doctor.
Question 27: Ireland doesn’t allow people to smoke in bars.
A. Ireland doesn’t enjoy smoking in bars.
B. Ireland hates smoking in bars.
C. Smoking in bars is banned in Ireland.
D. You should not smoke in bars in Ireland.
Question 28: Working on the computer is not what she feels like.
A. She doesn’t feel like work on the computer.
B. She doesn’t feel like working on the computer.
C. She doesn’t feel like to work on the computer.
D. She doesn’t feel like to working on the computer.
Question 29: California doesn’t permit people to fish without a fishing license.
A. California can’t stand fishing without a fishing license.
B. California doesn’t allow fishing without a fishing license.
C. California doesn’t encourage fishing without a fishing license.
D. California doesn’t mind fishing without a fishing license.
Question 30: “Why don’t we go for a walk?” Mary said.
A. Mary advised to go for a walk.
B. Mary asked going for a walk.
C. Mary suggested going for a walk.
D. Mary would like going for a walk.
Đáp án
|
1C |
2D |
3C |
4D |
5D |
6B |
|
7B |
8D |
9B |
10A |
11B |
12D |
|
13B |
14D |
15C |
16C |
17C |
18B |
|
19A |
20D |
21C |
22D |
23B |
24A |
|
25D |
26C |
27C |
28C |
29B |
30C |
![[Năm 2021] Đề thi Giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án (16 đề) (ảnh 1)](https://hoc.io.vn/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/khen-thuong-ky-luat-hoc-sinh-0709105405-1638177714.jpg)
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 7
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 7)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (1) ___ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (2) ____with.
There are all sorts of things that can (3)____about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages.____(4), it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the ____(5)of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.
Question 1: A. have B. share C. give D. spend
Question 2: A. up B. through C. on D. in
Question 3: A. provide B. bring C. cause D. result
Question 4: A. Therefore B. In addition C. However D. Yet
Question 5: A. majority B. major C. majorial D. majorially
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
Question 6: The passage is mainly about
A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles’ fame and success
D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song
Question 7: The four boys of the Beatles
A. Came from the same family
B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England
D. Received good training in music
Question 8: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad
C. Shocking D. Popular
Question 9: The first songs of the Beatles were____
A. Written by themselves
B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money
D. Written by black Americans
Question 10: What is not true about the Beatles?
A. The members had no training in music
B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
Question 11: The Beatles stopped their live performances because
A. They had earned enough money
B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.
Question 12: The tone of the passage is that of
A. Admiration B. Criticism
C. Neutral D. Sarcasm
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that has different pronunciation from the rest in each of the followings.
Question 13: A. waited B. mended C. objected D. faced
Question 14: A. bushes B. buses C. lorries D. charges
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 15: The better (A) you are at (B) English, the more chance (C) you have to get a job (D)
Question 16: He is (A) the (B) second person be killed (C) in that way (D)
Question 17: I’m very glad (A) that you’ve done (B) lots of (C) progress (D) this semester.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Question 18: ______ he is not rich, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although
C. Despite D.Because
Question 19: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift.
A. committed B. took
C. served D. done
Question 20: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school.
A. numeric B. numeral
C. numerous D. numerate
Question 21: Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ______ until it was announced publicly.
A. cap B. tongue
C. hat D. umbrella
Question 22: When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________ independent from her husband.
A. financially B. politically
C. philosophically D. variously
Question 23: A woman’s role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________ society or not.
A. upon B. to
C. off D. away
Question 24: The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up
C. made out D. put on
Question 25: Do you need to give your speech another_________ or do you already know it by heart?
A. break-down B. check-up
C. run-through D. mix-up
Question 26: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister’s wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived.
A. must have been B. could be
C. ought to be D. will have been
Question 27: He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood.
A. a few B. a large number of
C. a great deal of D. many
Question 28: When___________at this store, the buyers get a guarantee on all items
A. purchased B. purchase
C. purchasing D. having purchased
Question 29: ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.
A. If it were B. If it hadn’t been
C. were it to be D. Hadn’t it been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the followings.
Question 30: A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision
Question 31: A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 32: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “………….!”
A. Better luck next time
B. It’s none of my business
C. Congratulations
D. That was nice of you.
Question 33: Tom: “Wasn’t it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”
A. Yes, he wasn’t
B. It’s out of question
C. I haven’t a clue
D. It’s not my favourite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited
C. devoted D. interested
Question 35: If you do not understand the word “superstitious, look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it
C. draw it D. note it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 36 “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us.
A. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays.
B. Janet asked us where were we spending our holidays.
C. Janet asked us where you were spending your holidays.
D. Janet asked us where we were spending your holidays
Question 37: Be he rich or poor, she will marry him
A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor
B. She wants to marry him if he is rich
C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor
D. She will marry him however poor he may be
Question 38: Many people think Steve stole the money.
A. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.
B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.
C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve.
D. It was not Steve who stole the money.
Question 39: The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.
A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.
B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.
C. The show performing by the animals attracted the children.
D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.
Question 40: “We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future.” means_____.
A. We preserve natural resources so that we can use them in the future
B. We preserve natural resources so as to we can use them in the future
C. We preserve natural resources in order to we can use them in the future
D. We preserve natural resources for fear that we can use them in the future
Đáp án
|
1B |
2A |
3B |
4C |
5A |
|
6C |
7C |
8C |
9D |
10B |
|
11D |
12A |
13D |
14C |
15C |
|
16C |
17B |
18B |
19D |
20D |
|
21C |
22A |
23B |
24B |
25C |
|
26A |
27C |
28C |
29B |
30D |
|
31C |
32A |
33C |
34C |
35A |
|
36A |
37C |
38B |
39D |
40A |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 8
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 8)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (1) ___ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (2) ____with.
There are all sorts of things that can (3)____about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages.____(4), it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the ____(5)of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.
Question 1: A. have B. share C. give D. spend
Question 2: A. up B. through C. on D. in
Question 3: A. provide B. bring C. cause D. result
Question 4: A. Therefore B. In addition C. However D. Yet
Question 5: A. majority B. major C. majorial D. majorially
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
Question 6: The passage is mainly about
A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles’ fame and success
D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song
Question 7: The four boys of the Beatles
A. Came from the same family
B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England
D. Received good training in music
Question 8: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad
C. Shocking D. Popular
Question 9: The first songs of the Beatles were____
A. Written by themselves
B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money
D. Written by black Americans
Question 10: What is not true about the Beatles?
A. The members had no training in music
B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
Question 11: The Beatles stopped their live performances because
A. They had earned enough money
B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.
Question 12: The tone of the passage is that of
A. Admiration B. Criticism
C. Neutral D. Sarcasm
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that has different pronunciation from the rest in each of the followings.
Question 13: A. waited B. mended C. objected D. faced
Question 14: A. bushes B. buses C. lorries D. charges
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 15: The better (A) you are at (B) English, the more chance (C) you have to get a job (D)
Question 16: He is (A) the (B) second person be killed (C) in that way (D)
Question 17: I’m very glad (A) that you’ve done (B) lots of (C) progress (D) this semester.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Question 18: ______ he is not rich, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although
C. Despite D. Because
Question 19: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift.
A. committed B. took
C. served D. done
Question 20: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school.
A. numeric B. numeral
C. numerous D. numerate
Question 21: Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ______ until it was announced publicly.
A. cap B. tongue
C. hat D. umbrella
Question 22: When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________ independent from her husband.
A. financially B. politically
C. philosophically D. variously
Question 23: A woman’s role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________ society or not.
A. upon B. to
C. off D. away
Question 24: The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up
C. made out D. put on
Question 25: Do you need to give your speech another_________ or do you already know it by heart?
A. break-down B. check-up
C. run-through D. mix-up
Question 26: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister’s wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived.
A. must have been B. could be
C. ought to be D. will have been
Question 27: He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood.
A. a few B. a large number of
C. a great deal of D. many
Question 28: When___________at this store, the buyers get a guarantee on all items
A. purchased B. purchase
C. purchasing D. having purchased
Question 29: ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.
A. If it were B. If it hadn’t been
C. were it to be D. Hadn’t it been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the followings.
Question 30: A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision
Question 31: A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 32: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “………….!”
A. Better luck next time
B. It’s none of my business
C. Congratulations
D. That was nice of you.
Question 33: Tom: “Wasn’t it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”
A. Yes, he wasn’t
B. It’s out of question
C. I haven’t a clue
D. It’s not my favourite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited
C. devoted D. interested
Question 35: If you do not understand the word “superstitious, look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it
C. draw it D. note it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 36 “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us.
A. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays.
B. Janet asked us where were we spending our holidays.
C. Janet asked us where you were spending your holidays.
D. Janet asked us where we were spending your holidays
Question 37: Be he rich or poor, she will marry him
A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor
B. She wants to marry him if he is rich
C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor
D. She will marry him however poor he may be
Question 38: Many people think Steve stole the money.
A. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.
B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.
C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve.
D. It was not Steve who stole the money.
Question 39: The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.
A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.
B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.
C. The show performing by the animals attracted the children.
D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.
Question 40: “We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future.” means_____.
A. We preserve natural resources so that we can use them in the future
B. We preserve natural resources so as to we can use them in the future
C. We preserve natural resources in order to we can use them in the future
D. We preserve natural resources for fear that we can use them in the future
Đáp án
|
1B |
2A |
3B |
4C |
5A |
|
6C |
7C |
8C |
9D |
10B |
|
11D |
12A |
13D |
14C |
15C |
|
16C |
17B |
18B |
19D |
20D |
|
21C |
22A |
23B |
24B |
25C |
|
26A |
27C |
28C |
29B |
30D |
|
31C |
32A |
33C |
34C |
35A |
|
36A |
37C |
38B |
39D |
40A |
![[Năm 2021] Đề thi Giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án (16 đề) (ảnh 2)](https://hoc.io.vn/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/th-ivao-lop-10-o-ha-01-1638177742.jpg)
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 9
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 9)
Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
Question 1. A. earning B. learning C. clearing D. searching
Question 2. A. arrives B. textbooks C. combs D. teachers
Choose the word corresponding to (A, B, C or D) which is stressed differently from the others
Question 3. A. development B. illiteracy C. experience D. education
Question 4. A. runner B. village C. province D. allow
Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to full in the gap or substitute the underlined part
Question 5. My sister always hopes _____ to the headmaster by my parents.
A. being introduced B. to be introduced
C. to introduce D. introducing
Question 6. The best reported speech of the sentence: “Why don’t we participate in the English Speaking Contest?” is ______.
A. He told me not to participate in the English speaking Contest.
B. He asked me to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
C. He suggested taking part in the English Speaking Contest.
D. He offered we to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
Question 7. Do you mind _______ me ____________this computer?.
A. help/fixing B. helping/ fixing
C. helping/fix D. to help/ to fix
Question 8. The closest in meaning to the sentence: “I haven’t enjoyed myself so much for years” is _______.
A. It has been years since I have enjoyed myself so much.
B. It was years since I had enjoyed myself so much.
C. It’s years since I enjoyed myself so much.
D. It’s years since I have enjoyed myself so much.
Question 9. It’s possible ________ a train across Canada.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. to be taken
Question 10. They were finally __________ with each other , after not speaking for nearly five years.
A. fond B. persuaded C. reconciled D. interested
Question 11. My brother _________ in this school before he _______ for Hue last year.
A. taught/ had left B. had taught/ left
C. taught/ had left D. teaches/ leaves
Question 12. The closest in meaning to the sentence: “Jack was late for the meeting because his watch was slow.” Is _________.
A. Jack would be late for the meeting if his watch weren’t slow.
B. Jack wouldn’t be late for the meeting if his watch weren’t slow.
C. Jack would have been late for the meeting if his watch hadn’t been slow.
D. Jack wouldn’t have been late for the meeting if his watch hadn’t been slow.
Question 13. The closest in meaning to the sentence: “He realized that he had missed the last train. He began to walk” is _________.
A. Realized that he had missed the last train, he began to walk.
B. Realizing that he had missed the last train, he began to walk.
C. Began to walk, he realized that he had missed the last train.
D. Being realized that he had missed the last train, he began to walk.
Question 14. The office staff decided _______ a retirement party for Mr. Green.
A. having B. to have C. having had D. to have had
Question 15. Their professional relationship developed into a lasting ____.
A. friendly B. friendliness C. friend D. friendship
Question 16. The closest in meaning to the sentence: “ You can enrich your knowledge by listening to the radio.” Is _______.
A. Listening to radio can make you know more.
B. Listening to the radio enables you to be rich.
C. Listening to the radio makes you know less.
D. You can be rich if you listen to radio.
Question 17. – Phuong: Can I try your new camera?
– Linh: ___________.
A. Sure. But please be careful with it
B. I’m sorry. I’m home late
C. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now
D. Sure. I’d love to
Question 18. You ________spill anything on the door.
A. must C. mustn’t C. have to D. don’t have to
Question 19. Each year many people _________ take care of the old and disabled.
A. volunteer B. voluntarily C. voluntary D. volunteering
Question 20. Parents should try to see things from a teenager’s _______.
A. difference B. choice C. conflicts D. viewpoint
Question 21. ___ all his money on gambling, he decided to go back home.
A. Had spent B. Having spent C. Have spent D. Spent
Question 22. He reminded me of my childhood long time________.
A. before B. then C. ago D. now
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
Question 23. Young college and university students participate in helping the poor who have suffered badly in wars or natural disasters.
A. get involved in B. interfere with C. join hands D. come into
Question 24. They give care and comfort to the disadvantaged and handicapped children and help them to get over difficulties.
A. accept B. face C. overcome D. take
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part.
Question 25. The maintenance of this company is dependent on international investment.
A. affected B. reliant C. restricted D. reliable
Question 26. My parents seemed fully satisfied with the result of my entrance exam.
A. pleased B. contented C. disappointed D. joyful
Mark the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. – Mr. Pike: Could you bring me some water? – Lucy: ___________.
A. Certainly,sir B. No, I can’t
C. Yes, I can D. I don’t want to
Question 28. – Sally : Happy Christmas! – Collin: __________!
A. The same to you B. You are the same
C. Same for you D. Happy Christmas with you
Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
Question 29. He said that (A) if he has (B) more time(C), he would come to see (D) us.
Question 30. I’m delighted (A) hearing(B) that you have made(C) much progress in (D) you study.
Question 31. I couldn’t (A) make my car (B) to start(C) this morning(D).
Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable word among A, B, C or D.
When I was a little boy, I used to wander in the woods by the river flowing (32) _________ my village. In spring, I (33) _________ watching a variety of bushes and plants grow in the sunlight and listened to newly-born birds chirp in their nest high on the trees. In summer, I (34) _________ watch different kinds of kites fly high in blue sky and listen to buffalo, boys play their bamboo flutes (35) _________ they rode their water buffaloes.
Question 32. A. above B. through C. at D. in
Question 33. A. wanted B. try C. dislike D. loved
Question 34. A. used to B. am used C. was used D. used
Question 35. A. when B. until C. after D. because
Read the following passage, then answer question by circling A, B, C or D.
Having a best friend to confide in can bring a positive effect on our emotional health. An evening out with the closest friend may be the best guarantee of a good time. In fact, our best friend can prevent us from developing serious psychological problems such as depression and anxiety.
Best friendship evolves with time – we cannot go out and pick our best friend. We become friends with people who share common interests – at school or through hobbies, for example.
Best friends have usually known each other for years and stuck together through good and bad times. If you haven’t got one, perhaps you are being too distant from people, or focusing too much on your work.
Question 36. A best friend can ________.
A. share joy and sadness with us
B. spend much time finding
C. give us a healthy life
D. go out with us in the evening
Question 37. Close friends need to ________.
A. have the same interests
B. spend time together
C. study at the same school
D. pursue the same hobbies
Question 38. According to the passage, ________.
A. it takes a lot of time to make close friendships
B. best friends have good and bad times
C. we can go out and choose a good friend easily
D. It’s very difficult to make lasting friendships
Question 39. The word ‘one’ in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. a friendship B. good time C. bad time D. a close friend
Question 40. Which of the following sentences is not mentioned?
A. An unsociable person may not have a close friend.
B. Friendships need time to develop.
C. The ties of close friendship will never be broken.
D. We often have satisfaction being with a close friend.
Đáp án:
|
1C |
6C |
11B |
16A |
21B |
26C |
31C |
36A |
|
2B |
7C |
12D |
17A |
22C |
27A |
32B |
37A |
|
3D |
8C |
13B |
18C |
23A |
28A |
33D |
38A |
|
4D |
9B |
14B |
19B |
24C |
29B |
34A |
39D |
|
5B |
10C |
15D |
20D |
25C |
30B |
35A |
40C |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 10
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 10)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. Epidemic B. Illegal C. Education D. Competitor
Question 2: A. Compose B. Opponent C. Wholesale D. Colony
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Discuss B. Waving C. Airport D. Often
Question 4: A. Interview B. Difficulty C. Simplicity D. Beautiful
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: The skin receives nearly (A) the (B) third of the blood pumped out (C) by (D) the heart.
Question 6: I had (A) my motorbike repair (B) yesterday but now (C) it still doesn’t work (D).
Question 7: If you are working with (A) young children in a primary (B) school, you will find (C) teaching lively songs and rhymes are (D) very popular.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: The next meeting _________ in May.
A. will hold B. will be held
C. will be holding D. will have held
Question 9: The librarian told us not _________ reference books out of the library.
A. taking B. to take
C. take D. took
Question 10: My responsibility is to _________ my little brothers.
A. take care of B. join hands
C. take over D. work together
Question 11: In Vietnam, two or more ________ may live in a home.
A. generations B. generous
C. generation D. generators
Question 12: __________ candidates are likely to succeed in job interviews.
A. Nervous B. Self-conscious
C. Self-doubt D. Self-confident
Question 13: A good essay must __________contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization.
A. in addition B. either
C. not only D. as well
Question 14: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night.
A. must B. must have
C. may have D. might have
Question 15: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.
A. another B. other
C. the another D. the other.
Question 16: Do you know the woman ______ lives next door?
A. she B. who
C. whom D. her
Question 17: If you _______ less last night, you _______ so bad today.
A. had drunk- would not have felt
B. drank- would not feel
C. had drunk- would not feel
D. would have drunk- would not feel
Question 18: I can’t sleep ________ the hot weather.
A. because of B. as
C. because D. since
Question 19: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: John: “Congratulations! You did great. Mary: – ” ___________.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so.
B. It’s my pleasure.
C. You’re welcome.
D. That’s okay.
Question 21: Minh : ” My first English test was not as good as I expected ” Thomas : ” _________.”
A. Good Heavens!
B. Never mind , better job next time!
C. That’s brilliant enough!
D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in
C. pay all attention to D. express interest in
Question 23: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”.
A. part B. funny
C. whole D. interesting
Read the following sentences and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 24: They don’t know much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
A. They have little knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
B. They have a few knowledge about the jobs of their choice.
C. They have few knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
D. They don’t have much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
Question 25: Hardly are appeals allowed against the council’s decisions.
A. It’s too hard for the council to allow appeals against its decisions.
B. The council always allows appeals against its decisions.
C. Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.
D. The council rarely allows appeals against its decision.
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to (31) ____ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects which eat plants. These chemicals go (32) ______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (33) _____ air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and over The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (34) ______ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the future .
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (35) _______ the world’s resources.
Question 26: A. work B. change C. make D. let
Question 27: A. out B. for C. at D. into
Question 28: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 29: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
Question 30: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse
Đáp án
|
1B |
2D |
3A |
4C |
5B |
6B |
|
7D |
8B |
9C |
10A |
11A |
12D |
|
13C |
14B |
15A |
16B |
17C |
18A |
|
19B |
20A |
21C |
22C |
23C |
24A |
|
25A |
26C |
27D |
28C |
29D |
30B |
![[Năm 2021] Đề thi Giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án (16 đề) (ảnh 3)](https://hoc.io.vn/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/ttxvn-hoc-sinh-khong-bat-buoc-deo-khau-trang-1-1638177762.jpg)
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 11
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 11)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. village B. luggage C. engage D. damage
Question 2: A. swallowed B. practiced C. finished D. punched
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. equal B. campus C.danger D. perform
Question 4: A. atmosphere B. information C. understanding D. entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5: Mrs. Stevens, along with (A) her cousins (B) from Canada, are (C) planning to attend (D) the firework display in Da Nang, Vietnam.
Question 6: If one type of manufacturing expands (A), it is like (B) that another (C) type will shrink considerably (D).
Question 7: For thousands of years, man (A) has created sweet-smelling (B) substances from wood, herbs and flowers and using them (C) for perfumes or (D) medicine.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: I was tired when you saw me because I____for the exam.
A. studied B. have been studying
C. had been studying D. would study
Question 9: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species ______ habitats are being badly destroyed.
A. why B. whose
C. which D. that
Question 10: His speech was careful and______, but his words seemed to make no sense.
A. distinctive B. distinction
C. distinct D. distinguish
Question 11: The more he insisted he was innocent, _________ they seemed to believe him
A. the less B. the least
C. the little D. the most
Question 12: The storm is reported ___________ people.
A. to kill B. to be killed
C. to have killed five D. to have been killed
Question 13: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but the primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. ∅ B. a
C. the D. an
Question 14: Make sure you ______ up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.
A. back B. store
C. save D. copy
Question 15: This winter wasn’t_______ as difficult as last winter.
A. almost B. nearly
C. closely D. just
Question 16: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern
B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small
D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 17: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach_____ our disappointment.
A. came down with B. made up for
C. got through to D. faced up to
Question 18: When it started to snow, he________ his overcoat.
A. took out B. put off
C. took off D. put on
Question 19: Some scientists say that it is still not too late to minimize the effects of climate change_____enough money and effort are invested in correct projects.
A. in case B. so that
C. even if D. provided that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Thomas and Peter are meeting after a long time.
Thomas: “How have you been recently?” Peter: “_____”
A. I am going on holiday next week.
B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. By car, usually.
D. I am working here.
Question 21: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.
George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting”. Frankie: “_____”
A. What are opinion!
B. There‟s no doubt about it.
C. Yes, you can do it.
D. Your opinion is exactly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.
A. cash and carry B. monthly payment
C. credit card D. piece by piece
Question 23: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. altogether B. specifically
C. thoroughly D. considerably
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. strongly condemned B. publicly said
C. openly criticized D. publicly supported
Question 25: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. reveal B. cover
C. presume D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.
Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days. Jasmine.”
A. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. Jasmine’s doctor told that she should rest for a few days.
D. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine should take a short rest.
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have seen her for the last three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I haven’t seen her for three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.
Question 28: It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
A. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
B. You must have persuaded him to change his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You may persuade him to change his mind.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: He failed his driving test the first time. As a result, he took it again.
A. He failed his driving test the first time and so he therefore took it again.
B. He failed his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
C. He failed his driving test the first time which he took it again.
D. Failing his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
Question 30: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
A. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
C. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
D. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example football or baseball, (31)______ in Europe or the USA in the nineteenth century. This did not happen by chance. It was the (32) ______ of changes in the way people lived in those places at that time. Until then, more people lived In the country than in towns. They worked in small groups and had no regular time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the nineteenth century, first in Europe and (33) ______. In the USA. For the first time, most people began to live in towns, and they found themselves with regular free time. They had more leisure time than ever before. This resulted in the need for organized entertainment. Suitable games developed or were invented, typically team games, in which the crowd could (34) ______ sides and become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they need in their free time. The recent explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused an increase in (35) ______ for sports as entertainment. The money TV has broughtto games such as football, tennis and baseball means that spectator sports will certainly go on playing an important part in our lives.
Question 31: A. started B. stemmed C. appeared D. came
Question 32: A. result B. cause C. reason D. effect
Question 33: A. lately B. next C. second D. then
Question 34: A. choose B. take C. select D. decide
Question 35: A. requirement B. need C. request D. demand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years. Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet. In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the
required information. Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest – during the business day of the Western Hemisphere – which is also when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this problem. In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized, fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are creating their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet will
eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks.
Question 36: In the passage, which of the following ts NOT true of the Internet?
A. It has become increasingly less popular.
B. It has created a sense of financial security
C. It tends to be unreliable
D. It is sometimes too slow to access
Question 37: As it can be inferred from the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet
B. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
C. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access
D. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
Question 38: The word “analogue” in paragraph 5 most nearly means_____.
A. solution B. alternative
C. similarity D. use
Question 39: The word “harness” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. block B. steal
C. utilize D. disguise
Question 40: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
Đáp án
|
1C |
2A |
3D |
4A |
5C |
|
6B |
7C |
8C |
9B |
10A |
|
11A |
12C |
13B |
14A |
15B |
|
16D |
17B |
18D |
19D |
20B |
|
21B |
22B |
23C |
24C |
25A |
|
26A |
27C |
28A |
29B |
30B |
|
31A |
32A |
33D |
34B |
35D |
|
36A |
37C |
38C |
39C |
40C |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 12
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 12)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. Epidemic B. Illegal C. Education D. Competitor
Question 2: A. Compose B. Opponent C. Wholesale D. Colony
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Discuss B. Waving C. Airport D. Often
Question 4: A. Interview B. Difficulty C. Simplicity D. Beautiful
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: The skin receives nearly (A) the (B) third of the blood pumped out (C) by (D) the heart.
Question 6: I had (A) my motorbike repair (B) yesterday but now (C) it still doesn’t work (D).
Question 7: If you are working with (A) young children in a primary (B) school, you will find (C) teaching lively songs and rhymes are (D) very popular.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: The next meeting _________ in May.
A. will hold B. will be held
C. will be holding D. will have held
Question 9: The librarian told us not _________ reference books out of the library.
A. taking B. to take
C. take D. took
Question 10: My responsibility is to _________ my little brothers.
A. take care of B. join hands
C. take over D. work together
Question 11: In Vietnam, two or more ________ may live in a home.
A. generations B. generous
C. generation D. generators
Question 12: __________ candidates are likely to succeed in job interviews.
A. Nervous B. Self-conscious
C. Self-doubt D. Self-confident
Question 13: A good essay must __________contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization.
A. in addition B. either
C. not only D. as well
Question 14: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night.
A. must B. must have
C. may have D. might have
Question 15: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.
A. another B. other
C. the another D. the other.
Question 16: Do you know the woman ______ lives next door?
A. she B. who
C. whom D. her
Question 17: If you _______ less last night, you _______ so bad today.
A. had drunk- would not have felt
B. drank- would not feel
C. had drunk- would not feel
D. would have drunk- would not feel
Question 18: I can’t sleep ________ the hot weather.
A. because of B. as
C. because D. since
Question 19: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: John: “Congratulations! You did great. Mary: – ” ___________.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so.
B. It’s my pleasure.
C. You’re welcome.
D. That’s okay.
Question 21: Minh : ” My first English test was not as good as I expected ” Thomas : ” _________.”
A. Good Heavens!
B. Never mind , better job next time!
C. That’s brilliant enough!
D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in
C. pay all attention to D. express interest in
Question 23: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”.
A. part B. funny
C. whole D. interesting
Read the following sentences and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 24: They don’t know much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
A. They have little knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
B. They have a few knowledge about the jobs of their choice.
C. They have few knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
D. They don’t have much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.
Question 25: Hardly are appeals allowed against the council’s decisions.
A. It’s too hard for the council to allow appeals against its decisions.
B. The council always allows appeals against its decisions.
C. Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.
D. The council rarely allows appeals against its decision.
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to (31) ____ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects which eat plants. These chemicals go (32) ______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (33) _____ air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and over The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (34) ______ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the future .
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (35) _______ the world’s resources.
Question 26: A. work B. change C. make D. let
Question 27: A. out B. for C. at D. into
Question 28: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 29: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
Question 30: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse
Đáp án
|
1B |
2D |
3A |
4C |
5B |
6B |
|
7D |
8B |
9C |
10A |
11A |
12D |
|
13C |
14B |
15A |
16B |
17C |
18A |
|
19B |
20A |
21C |
22C |
23C |
24A |
|
25A |
26C |
27D |
28C |
29D |
30B |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 13
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 13)
Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below.
Question 1: Many lists of “Wonders of the World”______ during the Midle Ages.
A. Are said to have existed
C. said to exist
B. Said to be existed
D. are said to exist
Question 2: If she _________ her husband, he couldn’t have finished his project.
A. Doesn’t help B. hasn’t helped
C. won’t help D. hadn’t helped
Question 3: Jane is a final year student and _________ her attempt to win a place at university.
A. In B. on
C. at D. with
Question 4: Vietnam was _______ nation to host SEA Games 22.
A. The B. some
C. a D. 0
Question 5: It gets ________ when the winter is coming.
A. Cold and cold
C. more and more cold
B. The coldest and coldest
D. colder and colder
Question 6: Who is going to look _________ the children while you’re away?
A. At B. up
C. after D. over
Question 7: Hoi An is a famous tourist ________.
A. Attractive B. attract
C. attracted D. attraction
Question 8: On her lastest trip to Europe, she bought __________.
A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch
C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch
B. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch
D. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch
Question 9: It is our responsibility to _________ to bettering our own lives.
A. Devote B. contribute
C. support D. promote
Question 10: Terry is a very imaginative boy. He always __________ interesting ideas.
A. Runs out of B. puts up with
C. comes up with D. stands in for
Question 11: If you don’t _______ to the rules, you will be asked to leave.
A. Obey B. follow
C. accept D. conform
Question 12: The teacher punished the students __________ was naughty.
A. Whom B. who
C. which D. whose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning.
Question 13: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise stopped at the midnight.
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
Question 14: “Let’s go shopping” she said.
A. She suggested going shopping.
C. She said we can go shopping.
B. She allowed us to go shopping.
D. she agreed to go shopping with him.
Question 15: I am sure it wasn’t Maike you saw because he’s in London.
A. It couldn’t be Mike you saw because he’s in London.
B. You mustn’t have seen Mike because he’s in London.
C. It can’t have been Mike you saw because he’s in London.
D. Mike is in London, so you might have seen him.
Question 16: We started out for California. It started to rain right after that.
A. No sooner did we start out for California than it started to rain.
B. Hardly had we started out for California than it started to rain.
C. Scarely had it started to rain when we started out for California.
D. No sooner had we started out for California than it started to rain.
Question 17: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was too strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
C. The coffee was good enough for us to keep us awake.
D. We were kept awake although the coffee was not strong.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.
Question 18: A. followed B. exploited C. packaged D. reserved
Question 19: A. gather B. average C. language D. space
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group.
Question 20: A. cattle B. country C. collect D. cover
Question 21: A. investigateB. conditional C. society D. underground
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: My mother-in-law (A) prefers staying (B) at home than (C) going out (D) for dinner.
Question 23: Manufacturers may use food additives (A) for preserving (B), to color, or (C) to flavor foods (D).
Question 24: Found (A) in the 12th century, Oxford University ranks (B) among (C) the world’s oldest universities (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 25: – Cindy: “I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Peter.” – Peter: “_______.”
A. It’s alright.
C. My pleasure.
B. Never mind.
D. You’ve got to be kidding.
Question 26: – Mike: “Would you mind getting me a cup of coffee?” – Cathy: “___________.”
A. No, I’d be glad to.
C. Yes, I’d love to, thanks.
B. Cream and sugar, please.
D. I never drink coffee.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. again and again B. time after time
C. very rapidly D. frm time to time
Question 28: The competition will commence just after the opening ceremony.
A. begin B. attract
C. restrict D. finish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: If he gets to university, his parents will be walking on air.
A. Disgusted B. promising
C. upset D. hopeful
Question 30: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants.
A. Prevented B. assisted
C. promoted D. realized
Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. Its also gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a license or certificate before he can practise law or medicine. Many fields, such as computer operation or police work, (32)_________ satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (33)_______ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes (34)________ important as people gain more and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)_____ the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. works B. jobs C. actions D. activities
Question 32: A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require
Question 33: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 34: A. increaed B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Question 35: A. with B. for C. in D. to
Đáp án
|
1A |
2D |
3A |
4A |
5D |
|
6C |
7D |
8D |
9A |
10C |
|
11A |
12B |
13B |
14A |
15C |
|
16D |
17D |
18B |
19D |
20C |
|
21D |
22C |
23B |
24A |
25D |
|
26A |
27C |
28A |
29C |
30C |
|
31D |
32C |
33D |
34D |
35A |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 14
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 14)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three.
1. A. stopped B. expected C. finished D. faced
2. A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
3. A. grease B. sympathy C. horse D. rose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three.
4. A. legal B. obey C. forbid D. impose
5. A. constitution B. disrespectful C. sympathetic D. elongated
6. A. generational B. interpersonal C. discrimination D. nationality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
7. My parents don’t let me get married until I graduate from university and they never __ their mind about that.
A. keep B. impose C. focus D. change
8. I will lend you some money, but you _________ pay it back to me next week.
A. should B. have to C. must D. mustn’t
9. Which show would you like to watch, madam?
A. Here you are! B. No, thanks. C. I am sorry. D. Pardon?
10. If you are lucky, it will be love at first ____.
A. look B. see C. sight D. site
11. “Do you feel like going to the prom with me?” – “ ____”
A. I feel very bored. B. That would be great.
C. Yes, congratulations. D. You’re welcome.
12. It would be unreasonable ____ him ____ you money if you didn’t pay it back.
A. to expect/lend B. to expect/to lend C. expect/to lend D. expecting/lend
13. She left a message with a request ____ in the contract.
A. not to sign B. not sign C. to not sign D. don’t sign
14. Although the dish smelt _______, he refused to eat saying that he was not hungry.
A. bad B. good C. well D. worse
15. It was hand-carved wooden spoons ________ Welsh boys gave to girls as a symbol of their love.
A. what B. that C. whose D. why
16. I found it truly ____ to hear that Mr. Kim had been appointed to the committee.
A. surprise B. surprised C. surprising D. surprisingly
17. In spite of being the new resident in this area, he always tries to ____ with his neighbours.
A. catch up B. go in C. put up D. get along well
18. My father used to ____ a lot of challenges before establishing his own insurance company.
A. provide B. enjoy C. give D. face
19. I think you ____ do exercise regularly in order to keep your body in good shape.
A. must B. should C. ought to D. Both B and C
20. He seemed to me a bit __________ today. A. badly B. awfully C. strangely D. strange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
21. When I was a child, my mother used to teach me table manners.
A. etiquette B. rule C. problem D. norm
22. She was so happy when he got down on bended knee and popped the question.
A. asked her out B. asked her to be on a date
C. asked her to give him some money D. asked her to marry him
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
23. Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career.
A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D. fighting
24. Then the strangest thing happens – Will and Marcus strike up an unusual friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain
25. I look up to my father for my whole life.
A. depend on B. disapprove C. disrespect D. underestimate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Fathers in today families are spending more time with their children than at any point in the past 100 years. (26) ____ the number of hours the average woman spends at home with her children has declined since the early 1900s, as more and more women enter the workforce, there has been a decrease in the number of children per family and an increase in (27) ____ attention to each child. As a result, mothers today in the United States, including those who work part- or full-time, spend almost twice as much time with each child as mothers did in the 1920s. People (28) ____ raised children in the 1940s and 1950s typically report that their own adult children and grandchildren communicate far better with their kids and spend more time helping with homework than they did.
America’s children are also safer today than they’ve ever been. An infant was four times more likely to die in the 1950s than today. A parent then was 27 percent more likely to lose an older teen to death.
If we look back over the last millennium, we can see that families have always been diverse. In each period, families have solved one set of problems only to face new challenges. What works for a family in one economic and cultural setting doesn’t work for a family in another. What’s helpful (29) ____ one stage of a family’s life may be destructive at the next stage. If there is one lesson to be drawn from the last millennium of family history, it’s that families always have to (30) ____ with a changing world.
26. A. Although B. However C. Unless D. Besides
27. A. isolated B. individual C. unique D. single
28. A. whom B. which C. who D. when
29. A. at B. for C. in D. by
30. A. put up B. live up C. go up D. catch up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Let’s see if you can correctly answer the following question: At what age are Latter-day Saint youth allowed to date? Of course, you probably immediately said, “16”. OK, then, how about this one: At what age are you allowed to have a boyfriend or girlfriend? You may be thinking, “Um, 16. Didn’t I just answer that?” Well, if that was your answer, then, even though you aced the first question, you missed the second one. Just because you can date when you turn 16 doesn’t mean you should immediately start looking for a steady boyfriend or girlfriend.
For decades, prophets have preached that youth who are in no position to marry should not pair off exclusively. For instance, President Hinckley (1910-2008) said, “When you are young, do not get involved in steady dating. When you reach an age where you think of marriage, then is the time to become so involved. But you boys who are in high school don’t need this, and neither do the girls”. So what does this counsel really mean, and what are the reasons for it?
To begin with, there are two different types of dating: casual dating and steady (or serious) dating. The distinction between the two has to do with exclusivity. With casual dating, there is no exclusivity. The two people aren’t “a couple” or “an item”, and they don’t refer to each other as a “boyfriend” or “girlfriend”. They don’t pair off. People who are casually dating are simply friends. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages you to do after you turn 16. You should put aside a need to find a “one and only”. If you’re dating casually, you don’t expect a relationship to become a romance. You have fun; you do a variety of things with a variety of people. On the other hand, steady dating means the couple is exclusive with one another. They expect each other not to date anyone else or to be emotionally or physically close with other people. Couples who date seriously consider the future, because there is a real possibility they could stay together. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages young adults (generally, people in their 20s) to progress toward because that’s the age when they should be thinking of marrying.
You should avoid becoming exclusive as teenagers because an exclusive relationship requires a high level of commitment from both partners, and you’re not in a position to make that kind of commitment as teens – neither emotionally, physically, nor in terms of your future plans. As President Boyd K. Packer, President of the Quorum of the Twelve Apostles, has said to the youth, “Avoid steady dating. Steady dating is courtship, and surely the beginning of courtship ought to be delayed until you have emerged from your teens”.
31. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ____.
A. dating doesn’t mean having exclusive boyfriend or girlfriend
B. teenagers are supposed to have a steady boyfriend or girlfriend
C. teenagers date as many boyfriends or girlfriends as they can
D. young people shouldn’t be allowed to date at 16
32. The word “aced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. gave up B. misled C. succeeded in D. understood
33. According to the passage, what is NOT true about casual dating?
A. You can be friends with each other.
B. You don’t pair off exclusively.
C. You find your “one and only”.
D. You meet different kinds of people.
34. It is stated in the passage that steady dating ____.
A. includes a variety of things with a variety of people
B. is courtship that you ought to have in your teens
C. requires hardly any commitment
D. suits people who are in their 20s
35. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. At what age are young people allowed to date?
B. Casual dating or steady dating.
C. Make your teenage dating by keeping it casual.
D. Popular kinds of dating for teenagers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning.
36. He became successful as a professional writer at the age of 20.
A. He did not succeed as a professional writer until he was 20.
B. He did not write professionally until he succeeded at the age of 20.
C. He succeeded as a professional writer until he was 20.
D. He wrote professionally until he became successful at the age of 20.
37. It was her story that made me cry.
A. I was made crying by her story.
B. I was made to cry by her story.
C. Her story made me crying.
D. Her story made me to cry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences.
38. My brother speaks too loud. It is really annoying.
A. My brother is speaking too loud.
B. My brother likes to speak too loud.
C. My brother feels annoyed when he can’t speak too loud.
D. My brother is always speaking too loud.
39. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only By taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
40. The room became hotter and hotter. I had to take off my sweater.
A. Unless the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater.
B. Although the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater.
C. The room became hotter and hotter, but I had to take off my sweater.
D. The room became hotter and hotter, so I had to take off my sweater.
ĐÁP ÁN
|
1. B |
2. C |
3. D |
4. A |
5. D |
6. C |
7. D |
8. C |
9. D |
10. C |
|
11. B |
12. B |
13. A |
14. B |
15. B |
16. B |
17. D |
18. D |
19. D |
20. D |
|
21. A |
22. D |
23. B |
24. B |
25. C |
26. A |
27. B |
28. C |
29. A |
30. D |
|
31. A |
32. C |
33. C |
34. D |
35. C |
36. A |
37. B |
38. D |
39. B |
40. D |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 15
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 15)
Part A: LISTENING. (2 points)
I. You will hear the short conversation. There is one question for each conversation. For question 1 to 4, put a tick under the right answer. (1 point)
II. You will hear a conversation about a flat for rent. Listen and complete the questions 5-8. (1 point)
Part B: PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY. (3.5 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
09. A. brightened B. affected C. celebrated D. expanded
10. A. kites B. idols C. laughs D. caps
II. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one showing the underlined part that needs correcting.
11. I asked the boys to move their bicycles off the football pitch but they flat refused
A. asked B. off C. but D. flat
12. Peter acknowledged that his chances in winning the race to be slim.
A. acknowledged B. chances C. in winning D. to be
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.
13. She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization.
A. helpful B. kind C. mean D. hospitable
14. The doctor advised Peter to give up smoking.
A. stop B. continue C. finish D. consider
IV. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences.
15. We took part in a sponsored walk____________ to support the poor.
A. organized B. organizing C. organize D. to organize
16. The children were warned____________ in the lake without an adult present.
A. not swim B. not to swim C. not swimming D. to not swim
17. We are going to have my house____________ tomorrow morning.
A. paint B. painting C. painted D. to be painted
18. Like many other baby birds, ducklings are blind____________ birth.
A. of B. at C. on D. from
19. I fell in____________ love with him because of his kind nature.
A. a B. the C. 0 (no article) D. an
20. His choice of future career is quite similar____________ mine.
A. for B. to C. with D. at
21. She’s not only beautiful____________ intelligent.
A. but also B. but C. however D. yet
22. He drank____________ wine last night and gets sick now.
A. too many B. too much C. few of D. a large number of
Part C: READING. (2.5 points)
I. Fill in each blank space with one appropriate from the box. There are more provided words than needed. (1 point)
In the summer of 2000 the Vietnam Society of Learning Promotion (23)___________ a campaign for illiteracy eradication. In the campaign, six hundred ethnic minority students from the northern highlands were asked to provide reading and writing skills to 1,200 illiterate people living in their own villages. In 2001, eight hundred volunteer. Students took (24)___________ in the campaign. The number of people receiving reading and writing lessons (25)___________ 4,623. This was an effective way to help people in remote and mountainous areas to read and write.
The fight against illiteracy continued in the summer of 2002. This time the Vietnam Society of Learning Promotion decided to expand its activities to the central mountainous provinces. At present, the number of illiterate people in the remote and mountainous areas is gradually decreasing. It is hoped that illiteracy will soon be (26)___________ in our country as more and more people are taking part (27)___________ the struggle against it.
23. A. began B. had C. started D. managed
24. A. control B. care C. part D. interest
25. A. ranged B. grew C. rose D. reached
26. A. limited B. eradicated C. completed D. prevented
27. A. in B. on C. at D. for
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C. or D provided. (1 point)
Is winning everything? Ask kids and the answer is probably “No”. Ask the adults and the answer is probably “Yes”. And it is adults who control sports for young people – with terrible results for many kids. Twenty millions of children between the ages of eight and sixteen play organized sports outside of school. Their experiences are sometimes very bad. Why? Because of the adults, often their parents, who watch the games. Children’s sports are organized like professional sports. Children play baseball and football. They wear all the equipment that professional athletes wear. They have uniforms and umpires and referees and leagues. They have games. And many people come to watch their games, especially the families of the players. Because the children’s games are like adults, professional games, their parents want adult professional competition. When a child drops a ball, his father becomes angry. When a child doesn’t run fast, his mother might shout, “Run faster! Run faster!” And the child? With an angry father and a shouting mother, this is not a happy time. Unhappy and nervous, the child wants to stop playing. The game is not fun now. But he or she can’t stop, because the competition is not finished.
28. How are the children’s sports organized?
A. They are easier. B. They are for children only.
C. They are the same as adults’. D. They are not competitive.
29. Why do some children become unhappy playing sports?
A. Because they often lose. B. Because they play worse than adults.
C. Not all of them can play. D. The adults watch them play.
30. What do parents want from children players?
A. Win the game. B. Not to drop the ball.
C. Run faster. D. Play a lot more.
31. What is the most important idea in the text?
A. Winning is everything. B. Winning is more important to parents than to children.
C. Winning is important to parents. D. Winning is important to both children and parents.
32. What can the word professional be replaced by_________?
A. formal B. informal C. profitable D. non-profitable
Part D: WRITING:
I. Complete the second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one beginning with the words given. (1 point)
33. “I’m terribly sorry I’m late” said Flora.
→ Flora apologized ________________________________________________.
34. She started learning French two years ago.
→ She’s _____________________________________________________________.
35. Alcohol is bad for our health, so is cigarette. (and).
→ Both ______________________________________________________________.
36. The trousers are too small for me (enough).
→ These trousers __________________________________________________.
II. Write a short paragraph (80-100 words) about one of the parties which make you impressed. (you can follow the cues) (1 point)
|
– What party did you attend? – Where and when was it organized? – What activity took place at the party? |
– What food and drinks were served at the party? – Why was it impressive? |
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI
Part A: LISTENING (2 points: 0.25 point per one correct item)
I. 01. B 02. A 03. C 04. B
II. 05. two/ 2/ one double, one single 06. 440.00
07. EARSLEY 08. 5.30/five thirty/ half past five
Part B: PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (3.5 points; 0.25 point per one correct item)
I. (0.2 point per one correct item): 09. A 10. B
II. (0.2 point per one correct item): 11. D 12. D
III. (0.2 point per one correct item): 13. C 14. B
IV. (0.2 point per one correct item): 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. B
19. C 20. B 21. A 22. B
Part C: READING (2.5 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. A
II. (0.25 point per one correct item). 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. A
Part D: WRITING (2 points)
I. (0.2 point per one correct sentence):
33. Flora apologized for (his) being late.
34. She’s been learning French for two years.
35. Both alcohol and cigarette are bad for our health.
36. These trousers are not big enough for me.
II. (1.4 point)
|
Phần |
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá |
Điểm tối đa |
|
Bố cục (0.3 point) |
o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Câu kết luận phù hợp |
0.1 point 0.2 points 0.1 point |
|
Nội dung (0.4 point) |
o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% |
0.2 points 0.2 points 0.2 points |
|
Sử dụng ngôn ngữ (0.3 point) |
o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả chính xác |
0.2 points 0.2 points
|
Cách tính lỗi:
Lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp/ từ vựng gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi – 0.05 point
(Cùng một lỗi lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi)
——————–HẾT——————–
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Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 16
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 16)
Part I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group (mark A, B, C or D). Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
Câu 1: A. honour B. him C. hunter D. ham
Câu 2: A. get B. guy C. Goggle D. gymnast
Câu 3: A. chemical B. cheap C. cheese D. cheat
Câu 4: A. autumn B. canteen C. Then D. nine
Câu 5: A. head B. bean C. heal D. ease
Part II: Choose from the four options given (mark A, B, C or D) one best answer to complete each sentence. Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
Câu 6: I’ll give you a lift to the station if in a hurry.
A. you were B. you’d be C. you’ll be D. you’re
Câu 7: Their childen are used to up after school every day.
A. be picked B. pick C. Picking D. being picked
Câu 8: __________ two hours having lunch, they left the restaurant.
A. Spending B. After spend C. Having spent D. Spent
Câu 9: I’ve got lots of but only a few really good friends.
A. neighbors B. best friends C. Acquaintances D. partners
Câu 10: We arrived the station just in time to catch the train.
A. in B. to C. at D. for
Câu 11: He has been my idol I was a child.
A. as B. Since C. When D. for
Câu 12: I had the film yesterday.
A. pressed B. printed C. photocopied D. developed
Câu 13: I don’t believe a word he says. I think he .
A. is lying B. is laying C. is telling lie D. lied
Câu 14: I nearly died of when he said that.
A. embarrassing B. embarrassment C. embarrassed D. embarrass
Câu 15: When it to rain, they through the forest.
A. starting/ walked B. started/ were walking
C. start/ walked D. starts/ walked
Câu 16: It’s a pleasure you again after so long.
A. see B. to see C. seeing D. being seen
Câu 17: They asked me I had seen John the day before.
A. what B. if C. that D. why
Câu 18: I avoid the car whenever possible, especially in big cities.
A. took B. taking C. is taken D. take
Câu 19: Sally warned me not to tell anyone the secret.
A. about B. by C. in D. of
Câu 20: Harry in an army camp before.
A. would never be B. would be never C. has never been D. had been never
Câu 21: He spends most of his time __________ computer games.
A. playing B. played C. having played D. to play
Câu 22: The man wanted to avoid __________ on security cameras.
A. seeing B. to be seen C. to see D. being seen
Câu 23: It was difficult to ________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. agree B. provide C. arrange D. organize
Câu 24: They use a lot of high school students ______ volunteers in the campaign.
A. like B. alike C. as D. such as
Câu 25: Would you mind _____________ your phone?
A. me use B. my using C. me to use D. I use
Câu 26: Helen expected _______ to the university, but she wasn’t.
A. being admitted B. to admit C. to be admitted D. admitting
Câu 27: The cake was _________ decorated with pink and white icing.
A. beautifully B. beauty C. beautiful D. beautify
Câu 28: True friendship should be based ______ understanding each other and faithfulness.
A. on B. at C. out D. over
Câu 29: The police let him ______ after they had asked him some questions.
A. leave B. Leaving C. to leave D. left
Câu 30: When we ______ to see him last night, he ______ to music.
A. come / is listening B. had come / listened
C. were coming / had listened D. came / was listening
Part III: Complete each sentence using the most appropriate ending by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D . Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
Câu 31: He didn’t know.
A. to go or to stay at home B. if that he should go or to stay at home
C. if to go or to stay at home D. whether to go or to stay at home
Câu 32: It usually to do her homework everyday.
A. take her two hours B. will take her two hours
C. takes her two hours D. has taken her two hours
Câu 33: He asked me how long.
A. time was I going to stay B. I was going to stay
C. was I going to stay D. time I was going to stay
Câu 34: Last week, John.
A. felt and broken his leg B. fell and breaks his leg
C. fell and broke his leg D. fallen and broken his leg
Câu 35: This test of multiple – choice questions.
A. consists of a number B. consists in a number
C. consist to a number D. consist on a number
Part IV: Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
Câu 36: Don’t let the children to stay up late.
A. to stay up B. Don’t C. let D. late
Câu 37: I was phoning you yesterday evening but you were out to a party.
A. were B. to a party C. was phoning D. yesterday evening
Câu 38: Young people go and work in the homes of people who is sick or old.
A. homes B. is C. Or D. in
Câu 39: I warned my friend in staying at a hotel near airport.
A. near B. in C. airport D. staying
Câu 40: She tried to warn him, but he wouldn’t hear.
A. wouldn’t B. to warn C. but D. hear
Part V: Read the passage again then choose the correct answer to answer the following questions by marking the corresponding letter: A, B, C, or D. Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
Australia is the world’s smallest continent, but it is one of the most fascinating. Australia has rainforests, and mountains. Seventy percent of the people in Australia live in cities near coasts. The middle of the country is nearly deserted.
Australia has 175 million sheep, about a sixth of the world’s total. It produces a third of the world’s wool. It exports ninety – seven percent of its wool to Japan, Europe, and China. Australia also has about 24 million cattle. It exports beef to more than 100 countries. Two million tourists visit this beautiful country each year.
Câu 41: How much of the world’s wool is produced in Australia, according to the passage?
A. 33 Percent B. 66 percent C. 75 percent D. 25 percent
Câu 42: How many Australians don’t live in cities the coast?
A. 50 percent B. 20 percent C. 30 percent D. 70 percent
Câu 43: The word “deserted” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. old and falling down B. dangerous
C. dry D. empty
Câu 44: Australia exports wool to.
A.China B.Japan
C. Europe D. Japan, Europe and China
Câu 45: How many tourists do visit Australia each year ?
A. 2 million B. 100 million C. 175 million D. 24 million
Part VI: Read the passage then complete it by marking the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. Mark your choice on the answer sheet.
While I was in prison, I spent a lot of time (46) about what had gone wrong. Obviously, Contessa and I had (47) a mistake somewhere, but we had taken a lot trouble to (48) to it that no one would catch us. I (49) a bad time in prison, but I was there, I (50) a decision that I would find Pilar again when I got out and we would spend the rest of our lives together.
Câu 46: A. inquiring B. Demanding C. Wondering D. regarding
Câu 47: A. Done B. made C. had D. taken
Câu 48: A. See B. watch C. notice D. look
Câu 49: A. did B. passed C. had D. spent
Câu 50: A. held B. made C. did D. found
ĐÁP ÁN
|
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. C |
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C |
21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. D |
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. A |
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. B |
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Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 17
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 17)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. question B. mutual C. situation D. action
2. A. honest B. honour C. honey D. ghost
3. A. rumour B. humour C. mutual D. duty
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
4. A. understanding B. anniversary C. experience D. celebration
5. A. invite B. intimate C. divorce D. imagine
III. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence.
6. He seemed ________ a friendship to Joe.
A. beginning B. being begun C. to be begun D. to have begun
7. ________ happened, I didn’t want to lose Sarah’s friendship.
A. However B. Wherever C. Whatever D. Whenever
8. He had a portrait ________ as a birthday present for his daughter.
A. paint B. painting C. painted D. to be painted
9. We ________ friends even after we grew up and left home.
A. became B. made C. struck up D. remained
10. At first I found it difficult ________ on the other side of the road.
A. to get used to drive B. to get used to driving
C. being used to drive D. in getting used to driving
11. The factory is said ________ in a fire two years ago.
A. being destroyed B. to have been destroyed
C. to destroy D. to have destroyed
12. The party starts at 8 o’clock so I’ll ________ at 7.45.
A. look for you B. pick you up
C. bring you along D. take you out
13. She wants to look ________ in her wedding reception.
A. nature B. natured C. natural D. naturally
14. When will you have the dress made?’ ‘I expect ________ by Friday.
A. to finish B. finishing C. to be finished D. being finished
15. A selfish person is incapable ________ true friendship.
A. of B. with C. in D. for
16. ________ it was a formal dinner part, James wore his blue jeans.
A. Since B. Even though C. Until D. Only if
17. No sooner ________ the phone rang.
A. had they arrived home that B. they had arrived home than
C. did they arrive home that D. had they arrived home than
18. A number of Vietnamese ________ to that city recently.
A. moved B. has moved C. have moved D.was moved
19. I’m really ________ to the party. All my old friends will be there.
A. appreciating B. looking forward C. thinking about D. enjoyable
20. Mr. Lee was upset by ________ him the truth.
A. our not having told B. us not tell C. we didn’t tell D. not to tell
21. Jean has a very easy-going ________, which is why she is so popular.
A. reputation B. personality C. characteristic D. sympathy
22. The examiner made us ________ our identification in order to be admitted to the test center.
A. show B. showing C. to show D. showed
23. As we entered the room, we saw a rat ________ towards a hole in the skirting board.
A. scamper B. to scamper C. scampering D. was scampering
24. I remember ________ to Paris when I was a very small child.
A. to be taken B. to take C. being taken D. taking
25. It was difficult to ________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. agree B. organize C. arrange D. provide
IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. If one is invited out to a dinner, it is perfect proper to go either with or without a gift.
A B C D
27. His teacher encouraged him taking part in the international piano competition.
A B C D
28. Jane has not rarely missed a party since she was fifteen years old.
A B C D
29. Tina is always understanding, patient, and sensitive when helping her friends to their problems
A B C D
30. So far this term, the students in writing class have learned how to write hesis statements,
A B
organize their material, and summarizing their conclusion.
C D
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
VOLUNTEERS ABROAD
More and more young people are… (31)… voluntary work abroad. The wild variety of jobs and destinations available is making it an increasingly attractive option for those who have just left school and have a year free before university. Many choose to spend these twelve months working in poor countries. There they will earn little… (32)… no money. But they will be doing something useful – and enjoying the experience.
The work may… (33)… of helping the local communities, for example by helping to build new road or provide water supplies to isolated rural villages. Other projects may concentrate more on conservation or environmental protection…. (34)… kind of job it is, it is certain to be challenging and worthwhile, and an experience that will never be forgotten.
31. A. doing B. making C. taking D. getting
32. A. with B. but C. or D. and
33. A. consist B. include C. contain D. involve
34. A. any B. what C. however D. whatever
* Read the passage and answer the questions, then choose the correct answer
If you are invited to an American friend’s home for dinner, remember these general rules for polite behavior. First of all, arrive approximately on time but not early. Americans expect promptness. It will be right to be 10 or 15 minutes late, but not 45 minutes late. When you are invited to someone’s home for meal, it is polite to bring a small gift. Flowers and candy are always appreciated. If you have something attractive made in your country, your host or hostess will certainly enjoy receiving that gift. What will you do if you are served some food that you cannot eat or you do not like? Do not make a fuss about it. Simply eat what you can and hope that no one notices it. Be sure to compliment the cook on the food that you are enjoying. Do not leave immediately after dinner, but do not overstay your welcome, either. The next day, call or write a thank-you note to say how much you enjoyed the evening.
35. Which sentence is not true?
A. You should not compliment the cook on the food.
B. You should not leave immediately after the dinner.
C. You should not make someone notice that you do not like the food.
D. You should not overstay.
36. If you are invited to an American’s home, __________________
A. you should be late at least 45 minutes. B. you should go late a bit.
C. politeness is not necessary. D. punctuality is appreciated.
37. If there is some food that you cannot eat, ________________
A. make a fuss about it. B. ask the host to cook you another dish.
C. do not eat anything. D. do not make a fuss about it.
38. The next day, ________________
A. remember to thank the host for the dinner B. say nothing to the host
C. you needn’t say thank-you D. invite the host to your house
39. When you come to someone’s house for dinner, ________________
A. bring some flowers, candy or something made in your native country.
B. bring a lot of gifts.
C. you should never offer any gifts.
D. do not care about gifts.
VI. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that is nearest in meaning to the printed before it.
40. It’s no use trying to make friends with him.
A. You should try to make friends with him.
B. I find it difficult to make friends with him.
C. There’s no point in trying to make a friendship with him.
D. Making a friendship with him is worthless.
41. As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.
A. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
B. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived the airport.
D. Immediately after he called home, he arrived the airport.
42. We had our house decorated to celebrate our wedding anniversary.
A. We had to decorate our house.
B. We had someone decorate our house.
C. Our house needs to be decorated.
D. We helped my father decorate our house.
* Choose the best sentence (A, B, C, or D) made from the given cues.
43. Thank/ invitation/ silver anniversary/ beginning/ September//
A. Thank you for your invitation to your silver anniversary at the beginning of September.
B. Thanks for your invitation of the silver anniversary at the beginning of September.
C. Thank you for your invitation to your silver anniversary in the beginning of September.
D. Thank you for your invitation to your silver anniversary at the beginning in September.
44. When! I arrive/ lecture/ already start/ professor/ write/ overhead projector//
A. When I arrived the lecture already started and the professor wrote the overhead projector.
B. When I arrived lecture had already started ‘and professor wrote the overhead projector.
C. When I arrived the lecture had already started and the professor was writing on the overhead projector.
D. When I arrived the lecture had already started and the professor had writing on the overhead projector.
ĐÁP ÁN
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1 – D; 2 – C; 3 – A;
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
4 – C; 5 – B;
III. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence.
6 – D; 7 – C; 8 – C; 9 – D; 10 – B;
11 – B; 12 – B; 13 – D; 14 – C; 15 – A;
16 – B; 17 – D; 18 – C; 19 – B; 20 – A;
21 – B; 22 – A; 23 – C; 24 – C; 25 – C;
IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26 – B; 27 – B; 28 – A; 29 – D; 30 – D;
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
31 – A; 32 – C; 33 – A; 34 – D;
VI. Read the passage and answer the questions, then choose the correct answer
35 – A; 36 – D; 37 – D; 38 – A; 39 – A;
VII. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that is nearest in meaning to the printed before it.
40 – C; 41 – A; 42 – B;
VIII. Choose the best sentence (A, B, C, or D) made from the given cues.
43 – A; 44 – C;
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Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 18
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 18)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
|
1. A. enough |
B. plough |
C. rough |
D. tough |
|
2. A. believes |
B. dreams |
C. girls |
D. parents |
|
3. A. kissed |
B. laughed |
C. looked |
D. loved |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
|
4. A. donate |
B. compare |
C. campaign |
D. flashy |
|
5. A. experience |
B. mobility |
C. independent |
D. prioritise |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6. My grandpa is the most conservative person in my family. He never ____ about way of life.
A. gives his opinion B. changes his mind
C. express his view D. keeps in mind
7. Anna often dresses ______ when going to the parties in order to attract her friends’ attention.
A. plainly B. properly C. flashily D. soberly
8. All students _______ wear uniforms at school because it is a rule.
A. should B. have to C. ought to D. must
9. You ____ finish your homework before you go to bed.
A. must B. have to C. could D. oughtn’t to
10. This drink isn’t beneficial for health. You ____ drink it too much.
A. should B. ought to not C. ought not to D. mustn’t
11. All three boys seem to fall ____ over heels in love with her.
A. head B. heart C. mind D. soul
12. She says she has kissed and ____ up with Nigel, and the reunion was a fun night.
A. caught B. done C. made D. took
13. Due to financial conflict over the years, they decided to get ____.
A. divorced B. engaged C. married D. proposed
14. “Do you mind if I sit next to you?” – “____”
A. Don’t mention it. B. My pleasure.
C. No, not at all. D. Yes, why.
15. “Hello. ____” – “Hello. Hold on please. I get you through.”
A. Can I meet Mr Green? B. Can I take Mr Green’s number?
C. May I speak to Mr Green? D. Where is Mr Green’s room?
16. The government must take ____ action against environmental pollution.
A. important B. unstable C. decisive D. soft
17. My teacher always gives me advice ____ suitable career in the future.
A. choosing B. to choose C. choose D. not to choose
18. We’re ____ to announce that you were selected to be our new faculty manager.
A. happily B. unhappy C. happiness D. happy
19. It is unnecessary for ____ to do this task. It’s not ours.
A. we B. us C. they D. our
20. The chef tastes the meat ___________ before presenting it to the Minister.
A. cautious B. more cautious C. cautiously D. much cautious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
21. As (A) our teacher said yesterday, we ought to not (B) worry about (C) the mid-term test. Take (D) it easy.
22. His parents are very sadly (A) to see (B) that Binh doesn’t (C) usually (D) do his homework.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Would you like to learn to rock climb? Or spend time working at an animal sanctuary? That’s (23) ____ Andrea Black and Jenny Smith are doing as part of their Duke of Edinburgh Award programme. The award encourages young people to do (24) ____ cultural, social and adventurous activities in their free time. The Queen’s husband, the Duke of Edinburgh, started the award in 1956. He started it (25) ____ he wanted young people to learn to help themselves and other people.
The award is for people aged 14-25, and there are three levels: Bronze, for those aged 14 or over, Silver for over 15s, and Gold for over 16s. You have to complete four activities to (26) ____ the award:
– go on an expedition (e.g. hiking, kayaking or climbing)
– learn a new practical or social skill (anything from painting to podcasting!)
– take (27) ____ a physical challenge (e.g. learn or improve at a sport)
– do voluntary work helping people or the environment (e.g. work with disabled or elderly people, or (28) ______ money for a charity).
Young people usually do the award at a Duke of Edinburgh club at their school or at a local youth group. They (29) ____ what they are going to do, and write a plan. It usually takes (30) ____ one and three years to finish an award.
|
23. A. what |
B. why |
C. which |
D. when |
|
24. A. excited |
B. exciting |
C. excitement |
D. excite |
|
25. A. therefore |
B. but |
C. because |
D. if |
|
26. A. compete |
B. accept |
C. realize |
D. achieve |
|
27. A. on |
B. in |
C. away |
D. after |
|
28. A. lift |
B. increase |
C. raise |
D. advance |
|
29. A. decide |
B. are deciding |
C. decided |
D. had decided |
|
30. A. from |
B. in |
C. during |
D. between |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Stella McCartney was born in 1972, the daughter of pop star Sir Paul McCartney. She is the youngest of three sisters. One sister is a potter and the other sister does the same job as their mother used to do – she works as a photographer. Stella’s brother, James, is a musician. Stella first hit the newspaper headlines in 1995 when she graduated in fashion design from art college. At her final show, her clothes were modeled by her friends, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss, both well-known models. Unsurprisingly, the student show became front-page news around the world. Stella hadn’t been in the news before as a fashion designer but she had spent time working in the fashion world since she was fifteen. In March 1997, Stella went to work for the fashion house Chloe. People said the famous fashion house had given her the job because of her surname and her famous parents but Stella soon showed how good she was. She designs clothes which she would like to wear herself, although she’s not a model, and many famous models and actors choose to wear them. In 2001 Stella started her own fashion house and has since opened stores around the world and won many prizes. A lifelong vegetarian, McCartney does not use any leather or fur in her design. Instead, she uses silk, wool and other animal-derived fabrics.
31. Which of the following is NOT true about Stella’s family?
A. She has three sisters.
B. One of her sisters is a photographer.
C. She is the youngest.
D. Her father is a famous singer.
32. Stella, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss ____.
A. met for the first time at her fashion show
B. are very famous fashion models
C. had been friends before 1995
D. all performed at the final show in 1995
33. Which of the following is TRUE about the show?
A. Everyone was surprised when Stella’s show was successful.
B. The models performed clothes designed by Stella.
C. The show was the last show of Stella.
D. There was no one famous appearing in the show.
34. Stella thinks about the kinds of clothes that ____.
A. famous people like to wear B. she likes to wear
C. well-known models perform beautifully D. bring her prizes
35. The word “lifelong” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. permanent B. inconstant C. temporary D. changing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
36. “I will come back home soon,” he said.
A. He advised to come back home soon.
B. He offered to come back home soon.
C. He promised to come back home soon.
D. He suggested that he should come back home soon.
37. Stop giving me a hard time, I could not do anything about it.
A. Don’t make me feel guilty because I couldn’t do anything about it.
B. I could not do anything about it because I am going through a hard time.
C. Going through a hard time doesn’t help me do anything about it.
D. I couldn’t do anything about it so I would stop.
38. It is unlikely that he will come on time.
A. He is unlikely to come early.
B. It is likely that he will not come too late.
C. It looks as if he will come late.
D. It seems that he will come lately.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
39. There is always a conflict between parents and children. However, they still should talk and share things with each other.
A. Although there is always a conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other.
B. There is always a conflict between parents and children, so they still should talk and share things with each other.
C. Unless there is always a conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other.
D. Not only there is always a conflict between parents and children, but they still should talk and share things with each other.
40. Billy did not find his cat in the garden. He found it in the garage.
A. It was the garden and garage that Billy found his cat.
B. It wasn’t the garden that Billy did not find his cat.
C. It wasn’t in the garden but in the garage that Billy found his cat.
D. Billy could not find his cat anywhere, even in the garage.
ĐÁP ÁN
|
1. B |
2. D |
3. D |
4. D |
5. C |
|
6. B |
7. C |
8. B |
9. A |
10. C |
|
11. A |
12. C |
13. A |
14. C |
15. C |
|
16. C |
17. B |
18. D |
19. B |
20. C |
|
21. B |
22. A |
23. A |
24. B |
25. C |
|
26. D |
27. A |
28. C |
29. A |
30. D |
|
31. A |
32. C |
33. D |
34. B |
35. A |
|
36. C |
37. A |
38. C |
39. A |
40. C |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 19
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 19)
Choose the word or phrase among A,B,C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage
Lisa is seven years old today, and her parents hold a birthday party for her. On the table there is a birthday (1) ——– which there are seven colourful (2) ——-sitting in the middle of the cake. People sing “Happy birthday” to Linda. When they finish singing, she(3)—— the candles on the cake then she cuts the cake to serve the guests. After that, she happily opens her birthday cards and (4)——-that her relatives and friends give her.
1. A. bread B. caddy C. sandwich D. cake
2. A. gifts B. candles C. rings D. flowers
3. A. blows out B. pulls out C. picks out D. takes out
4. A. parents B. complaints C. presents D. helicopters
Read the passage carefully and then answer the questions below.
Last Sunday was definitely not a good day for me. It all started when I got into my car and it refused to start. I realized that I had left the lights on and the battery had gone flat. I telephoned my friend David and he came round and help me start the car. I then drove into the town to see a friend. I had arranged to meet him at 6.30, but by the time I got there he had left. I waited for him for an hour despite the freezing weather, but he did not come. When I returned to my car, I was that someone had broken into it, probably looking for the radio. Luckily, I never leave the radio in the car! There was nothing I could do but get into my car and drive home. Later I spoke with my friend and discovered that he had waited for only half and hour and left. He didn’t even apologized for not waiting for me longer.
1. Why didn’t the writer’s car start?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Who did he phone?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. What did he see when he returned to his car?
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Did the writer have a good Sunday?
………………………………………………………………………………………………
Rewrite the sentences, using the words given in brackets
1. The boy ran away from the house.
àShe noticed …………………………………….………………………………
2. She crossed the road.
à I saw……………………………………………………………………………………..
3. They sang a song.
à I heard ………………………………………………………………………………
4. He locked the door.
à I observed ………………………….………..………………………………………….
Make meaningful sentences with the cues given:
1. She/promise/help me my housework.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. We like/ learn English because it/ international language.
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. hour B. holiday C. hospital D. house
2. A. cheese B. choose C. children D. machine
Choose the best answer.
1. Your friendship should be based on …………….. trust.
A. blind B. fragile C. mutual D. basic
2. They went home after they (finish) …………………….their work
A. has finished B. had finished C. to finish D. finished
3. John: “I’ve passed my final exam.”- Tom: “…….”
A. Good luck. B. It’s nice of you to say so.
C. That’s a good idea. D. Congratulation!
4. We (have)……..lunch when we heard the new.
A. were having B. was having C. had D. had had
5. The 50th wedding anniversary is called the………………………. anniversary.
A. special B. golden C. diamond D. silver
6. The children enjoyed ……………… on camping trips last week.
A. take B. took C. taking D. to take
Put the verbs in the correct form
1. She usually (get)……………….up at 5 o’clock.
2. Last Sunday we (go)……………………………..to the market.
3. I enjoy (listen)……………………..…to music everyday.
4. He agreed (work)……….……for us.
ĐÁP ÁN
Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage
1 – D; 2 – B; 3 – A; 4 – C;
Read the passage carefully and then answer the questions below.
1 – Because he had left the lights on and the battery had gone flat.
2 – He telephoned his friend David
3 – When he returned to his car, he was that someone had broken into it
4 – No, he didn’t.
Rewrite the sentences, using the words given in brackets
1 – She noticed the boy run away from the house.
2 – I saw her cross the road.
3 – I heard them sing a song.
4 – I observed him lock the door.
Make meaningful sentences with the cues given:
1 – She promises to help me my housework.
2 – We like learning English because it is international language
Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1 – A; 2 – D;
Choose the best answer.
1 – C; 2 – B; 3 – D; 4 – A; 5 – B; 6 – C;
Put the verbs in the correct form
1 – gets; 2 – went; 3 – listening; 4 – to work;
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 20
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 20)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three.
1. A. stopped B. expected C. finished D. faced
2. A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
3. A. grease B. sympathy C. horse D. rose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three.
4. A. legal B. obey C. forbid D. impose
5. A. constitution B. disrespectful C. sympathetic D. elongated
6. A. generational B. interpersonal C. discrimination D. nationality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. My parents don’t let me get married until I graduate from university and they never __ their mind about that.
A. keep B. impose C. focus D. change
8. I will lend you some money, but you _________ pay it back to me next week.
A. should B. have to C. must D. mustn’t
9. Which show would you like to watch, madam?
A. Here you are! B. No, thanks. C. I am sorry. D. Pardon?
10. If you are lucky, it will be love at first ____.
A. look B. see C. sight D. site
11. “Do you feel like going to the prom with me?” – “ ____”
A. I feel very bored. B. That would be great.
C. Yes, congratulations. D. You’re welcome.
12. It would be unreasonable ____ him ____ you money if you didn’t pay it back.
A. to expect/lend B. to expect/to lend C. expect/to lend D. expecting/lend
13. She left a message with a request ____ in the contract.
A. not to sign B. not sign C. to not sign D. don’t sign
14. Although the dish smelt _______, he refused to eat saying that he was not hungry.
A. bad B. good C. well D. worse
15. It was hand-carved wooden spoons ________ Welsh boys gave to girls as a symbol of their love.
A. what B. that C. whose D. why
16. I found it truly ____ to hear that Mr. Kim had been appointed to the committee.
A. surprise B. surprised C. surprising D. surprisingly
17. In spite of being the new resident in this area, he always tries to ____ with his neighbours.
A. catch up B. go in C. put up D. get along well
18. My father used to ____ a lot of challenges before establishing his own insurance company.
A. provide B. enjoy C. give D. face
19. I think you ____ do exercise regularly in order to keep your body in good shape.
A. must B. should C. ought to D. Both B and C
20. He seemed to me a bit __________ today. A. badly B. awfully C. strangely D. strange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. When I was a child, my mother used to teach me table manners.
A. etiquette B. rule C. problem D. norm
22. She was so happy when he got down on bended knee and popped the question.
A. asked her out B. asked her to be on a date
C. asked her to give him some money D. asked her to marry him
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
23. Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career.
A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D. fighting
24. Then the strangest thing happens – Will and Marcus strike up an unusual friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain
25. I look up to my father for my whole life.
A. depend on B. disapprove C. disrespect D. underestimate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Fathers in today families are spending more time with their children than at any point in the past 100 years. (26) ____ the number of hours the average woman spends at home with her children has declined since the early 1900s, as more and more women enter the workforce, there has been a decrease in the number of children per family and an increase in (27) ____ attention to each child. As a result, mothers today in the United States, including those who work part- or full-time, spend almost twice as much time with each child as mothers did in the 1920s. People (28) ____ raised children in the 1940s and 1950s typically report that their own adult children and grandchildren communicate far better with their kids and spend more time helping with homework than they did.
America’s children are also safer today than they’ve ever been. An infant was four times more likely to die in the 1950s than today. A parent then was 27 percent more likely to lose an older teen to death.
If we look back over the last millennium, we can see that families have always been diverse. In each period, families have solved one set of problems only to face new challenges. What works for a family in one economic and cultural setting doesn’t work for a family in another. What’s helpful (29) ____ one stage of a family’s life may be destructive at the next stage. If there is one lesson to be drawn from the last millennium of family history, it’s that families always have to (30) ____ with a changing world.
26. A. Although B. However C. Unless D. Besides
27. A. isolated B. individual C. unique D. single
28. A. whom B. which C. who D. when
29. A. at B. for C. in D. by
30. A. put up B. live up C. go up D. catch up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Let’s see if you can correctly answer the following question: At what age are Latter-day Saint youth allowed to date? Of course, you probably immediately said, “16”. OK, then, how about this one: At what age are you allowed to have a boyfriend or girlfriend? You may be thinking, “Um, 16. Didn’t I just answer that?” Well, if that was your answer, then, even though you aced the first question, you missed the second one. Just because you can date when you turn 16 doesn’t mean you should immediately start looking for a steady boyfriend or girlfriend.
For decades, prophets have preached that youth who are in no position to marry should not pair off exclusively. For instance, President Hinckley (1910-2008) said, “When you are young, do not get involved in steady dating. When you reach an age where you think of marriage, then is the time to become so involved. But you boys who are in high school don’t need this, and neither do the girls”. So what does this counsel really mean, and what are the reasons for it?
To begin with, there are two different types of dating: casual dating and steady (or serious) dating. The distinction between the two has to do with exclusivity. With casual dating, there is no exclusivity. The two people aren’t “a couple” or “an item”, and they don’t refer to each other as a “boyfriend” or “girlfriend”. They don’t pair off. People who are casually dating are simply friends. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages you to do after you turn 16. You should put aside a need to find a “one and only”. If you’re dating casually, you don’t expect a relationship to become a romance. You have fun; you do a variety of things with a variety of people. On the other hand, steady dating means the couple is exclusive with one another. They expect each other not to date anyone else or to be emotionally or physically close with other people. Couples who date seriously consider the future, because there is a real possibility they could stay together. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages young adults (generally, people in their 20s) to progress toward because that’s the age when they should be thinking of marrying.
You should avoid becoming exclusive as teenagers because an exclusive relationship requires a high level of commitment from both partners, and you’re not in a position to make that kind of commitment as teens – neither emotionally, physically, nor in terms of your future plans. As President Boyd K. Packer, President of the Quorum of the Twelve Apostles, has said to the youth, “Avoid steady dating. Steady dating is courtship, and surely the beginning of courtship ought to be delayed until you have emerged from your teens”.
31. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ____.
A. dating doesn’t mean having exclusive boyfriend or girlfriend
B. teenagers are supposed to have a steady boyfriend or girlfriend
C. teenagers date as many boyfriends or girlfriends as they can
D. young people shouldn’t be allowed to date at 16
32. The word “aced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. gave up B. misled C. succeeded in D. understood
33. According to the passage, what is NOT true about casual dating?
A. You can be friends with each other.
B. You don’t pair off exclusively.
C. You find your “one and only”.
D. You meet different kinds of people.
34. It is stated in the passage that steady dating ____.
A. includes a variety of things with a variety of people
B. is courtship that you ought to have in your teens
C. requires hardly any commitment
D. suits people who are in their 20s
35. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. At what age are young people allowed to date?
B. Casual dating or steady dating.
C. Make your teenage dating by keeping it casual.
D. Popular kinds of dating for teenagers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning.
36. He became successful as a professional writer at the age of 20.
A. He did not succeed as a professional writer until he was 20.
B. He did not write professionally until he succeeded at the age of 20.
C. He succeeded as a professional writer until he was 20.
D. He wrote professionally until he became successful at the age of 20.
37. It was her story that made me cry.
A. I was made crying by her story.
B. I was made to cry by her story.
C. Her story made me crying.
D. Her story made me to cry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences.
38. My brother speaks too loud. It is really annoying.
A. My brother is speaking too loud.
B. My brother likes to speak too loud.
C. My brother feels annoyed when he can’t speak too loud.
D. My brother is always speaking too loud.
39. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only By taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
40. The room became hotter and hotter. I had to take off my sweater.
A. Unless the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater.
B. Although the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater.
C. The room became hotter and hotter, but I had to take off my sweater.
D. The room became hotter and hotter, so I had to take off my sweater.
ĐÁP ÁN
|
1. B |
2. C |
3. D |
4. A |
5. D |
6. C |
7. D |
8. C |
9. D |
10. C |
|
11. B |
12. B |
13. A |
14. B |
15. B |
16. B |
17. D |
18. D |
19. D |
20. D |
|
21. A |
22. D |
23. B |
24. B |
25. C |
26. A |
27. B |
28. C |
29. A |
30. D |
|
31. A |
32. C |
33. C |
34. D |
35. C |
36. A |
37. B |
38. D |
39. B |
40. D |
————————————————–
Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa kì 1 có đáp án năm 2022 – Đề 21
Phòng/Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
(Đề số 21)
Pronounced differently from the rest.
|
1. A. architect |
B. cheese |
C. church |
D. chat |
|
2. A. change |
B. mango |
C. again |
D. forget |
|
3. A. house |
B. hot |
C. honest |
D. holiday |
|
4. A. bank |
B. any |
C. now |
D. money |
|
5. A. around |
B. sound |
C. only |
D. mouse |
1. When I (walk) ___________ to work I saw him.
2. Why did you avoid (meet) ________ him at the party last night?
3. By the time I arrived at the station the train (leave) ________ already.
4. James (not attend) ________ our wedding party last year.
5. We hoped (help) __________ by the teacher.
III. Choose the best answer to complete the entences.
1. The teacher made them __________ silent.
A. to keep B. Keeping C. Keep D. kept
2. She was able __________ English when she was very young.
A. to sing B. Sing C. Singing D. sang
3. Please let me __________ my result as soon as possible.
A. to know B. Know C. Knew D. knowing
4. I want __________ the film that you told me yesterday.
A. see B. Seeing C. Saw D. to see
5. Could you please stop __________ so much noise?
A. make B. to make C. Made D. making
6. Have you finished __________ on this project?
A. working B. Work C. Worked D. to work
7. Remember__________ the letter for me tomorrow.
A. posting B. to post C. Post D. will post
8. She said that she had talked to me but I didn’t remember __________ her before.
A. seeing B. to see C. not seeing D. see
9. Let your name__________ in the sheet of paper.
A. write B. be written C. Written D. to write
10. I think the old woman was very angry because she _____ when she saw the rubbish in front of her house.
A. made a fuss B. made a decision
C. made a choice D. made a move
IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
1. After (A) their children had grown up (B), they decided moving (C) to HCM city (D).
2. My lawyer advised (A) me to not say (B) anything (C) further about the (D) accident.
3. Most (A) people enjoy travel (B) to different (C) parts of (D) the world.
4. He said (A) he was accused (B) of have de serted (C) his ship two months before (D).
5. They wasted (A) a whole (B) afternoon try to repair (C) the old (D) bicycle.
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
VOLUNTEERS ABROAD
More and more young people are … (1) … voluntary work abroad. The wild variety of jobs and destinations available is making it an increasingly attractive option for those who have just left school and have a year free before university. Many choose to spend these twelve months working in poor countries. There they will earn little … (2) … no money. But they will be doing something useful – and enjoying the experience.
The work may … (3) … of helping the local communities, for example by helping to build new road or provide water supplies to isolated rural villages. Other projects may concentrate more on conservation or environmental protection. … (4) … kind of job it is, it is certain to be challenging and worthwhile, and an experience that will never be forgotten.
|
1. A. doing |
B. making |
C. taking |
D. getting |
|
2. A. with |
B. but |
C. or |
D. and |
|
3. A. consist |
B. include |
C. contain |
D. involve |
|
4. A. any |
B. what |
C. however |
D. whatever |
ĐÁP ÁN
I.
1 – A; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – A; 5 – C;
II.
1 – was walking; 2 – meeting; 3 – had left;
4 – didn’t attend; 5 – to be helped;
III.
1 – C; 2 – A; 3 – B; 4 – D; 5 – D;
6 – A; 7 – B; 8 – A; 9 – B; 10 – A;
IV.
1 – C; 2 – B; 3 – B; 4 – C; 5 – C;
V.
1 – A; 2 – C; 3 – A; 4 – D